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Feliz [49]
3 years ago
7

Adam Smith believed the government’s role in laissez-faire capitalism was

History
2 answers:
n200080 [17]3 years ago
8 0
Adam Smith believed the government’s role in laissez-faire capitalism was "<span>to leave the economy alone," since Smith believed in the "invisible hand of the market," that would regulate itself.</span>
igomit [66]3 years ago
7 0

Answer

to leave the economy alone.

Explanation

Laissez-faire it was a belief that when the the government lets the business and the economy to be independent without by any chance interfering with them this would be best. This idea was raised by economic philosopher Adam Smith where by he proposed that the government should minimize intervention and then interms of taxation it make it free.His aim was to make sure that the economy is in equilibrium.So Adam Smith believed the government’s role in laissez-faire capitalism was to leave the economy alone.

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The middle east is the best association with which international traded product
SOVA2 [1]

Oil.

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4 years ago
Why should peremptory challenges be abolished?
Amanda [17]

The selection of a jury is lengthened if this tactic is chosen, placing more pressure on an overtaxed court system. Therefore, contend these critics, it would be better to abolish peremptory challenges and try other methods of jury selection.

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2 years ago
Gender Roles in the Renaissance
grigory [225]
Women's lives did not improve at all if anything they were worsened. Rich woman during the renaissance had very little say in anything and was taught to help their husband run a business and take care of him and the house. The poor woman had no say in anything they only had to choices at life, they could either be a housewife and take care of the kids and the house ore they had to become a nun. The poor woman could not be single or have any rights.


The role of women was very scarce. Women were supposed to be seen and not heard. Rarely seen at that. Women were to be prim and proper, the ideal women. Females were able to speak their minds but their thoughts and ideas were shaped by men. Mostly everything women did had input given by men. Women were controlled by her parents from the day she is born until the day she is married, then she would be handed directly to her husband so he could take over that role. In the time of the renaissance, women were considered to legally belong to their husbands. Women were supposed to be typical ‘housewives.'

Though women were inferior to men, women in different classes had different roles. Low-class women were expected to be housewives and take care of everything to do with the house. The expectation of working-class women was a little bit different. These women were expected to work for their husbands and help them run their business. They would work alongside their husbands and then go home and take care of the household. Upper-class women may have had servants and workers working for them but the women were still expected to take care of the household.


Women could not work by themselves. Neither could they live alone if they were not married. If a woman was single, she was made to move in with one of her male relatives or join a convent and become a nun. There was no other option at this time for women.


In conclusion in different classes of women, the only women that were allowed to express themselves were upper-class women, but not sufficiently. The existence of women was there but it was a marginal existence. Very rarely would a woman of less than upper class be seen or heard expressing herself. It was unheard of. When women did express themselves, what they would express was tainted by male influence.

this is the citation I already put it through citation machine Gender Roles of Women in the Renaissance, www2.cedarcrest.edu/academic/eng/lfletcher/shrew/acloud.htm#:~:text=Mostly%20everything%20women%20did%20had,legally%20belong%20to%20their%20husbands.


Explanation:
please make mine the brainleist answer so i can get 19 more points. thank you
3 0
2 years ago
What 2 European countries divided most of the "New World" between them?
ololo11 [35]

Spain and Portugal divided most of the "New World" between them.

Answer: Option A

<u>Explanation:</u>

Western Hemisphere (mostly referred to Americas) is called as New World. After the discovery of America by Spanish explorer Christoper Columbus in 1492, the European Countries started to sail to America. At that time, Spain and Portugal were the two superpowers.

In 1494, the New World territory was separated by the Treaty of Tordesillas. They divided the land by drawing a line on the map in the Atlantic ocean that cuts through Eastern Brazil. With the line as the center, all East lands were contented by Portugal and  West lands were contented by Spain.

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3 years ago
How does the policy-setting role played by the Chinese communist party compare with the roles played by parties in the U.S. gove
murzikaleks [220]
Compared to the parties of the US government, the Chinese communist party is strictly authoritarian wherein there is only a single party for th different branches of government. <span>The </span>Chinese Communist Party<span> faces a host of pressing domestic and international </span>policy<span> issues as it transitions to a new generation of leaders.</span>
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3 years ago
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