Answer:
16.25;
g(f(x)) ;
76 ;
f(g(x))
Explanation:
For 15 off
f(x) = x - 15
For 35% off
g(x) = (1 - 0.35)x = 0.65x
g(x) = 0.65x
A.)
For the $15 off coupon :
f(x) = x - 15
f(x) 40 - 15 = 25
For the 35% coupon :
g(x) = (1-0.35)x
g(x) = 0.65(25)
g(x) = 16.25
B.)
Applying $15 off first, then 35%
Here, g is a function of f(x)
g(f(x))
Here g(x) takes in the result of f(x) ;
For the $140 off coupon :
f(x) = x - 15
f(140) = 140 - 15 = 125
For the 35% coupon :
g(125) = (1-0.35)x
g(124) = 0.65(125) = $81.25
C.)
x = 140
g(x) = 0.65x
g(140) = 0.65(140)
g(140) = 91
f(x) = x - 15
f(91) = 91 - 15
f(91) = 76
D.)
Here, F is a function of g(x)
f(g(x))
f(x) = (0.65*140) - 15
It doesn't take that long to be honest, I got mine in a week
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is given below:
a)
Direct labor rate variance = (Actual rate - Standard rate) × Actual hours
= ($22.50 - $23) × 8,450 hours
= -$4,225.00 Favorable
Direct labor time variance = (Actual hours - Standard hours) × Standard rate
= (8,450 hours - 8,400 hours) × $23
= $ 1,150.00 Unfavorable
Total direct labor cost variance is
= Direct labor rate variance + Direct labor time variance
= $4,225 Favorable + $1,150 Unfavorable
= -$3,075.00 Favorable
b. In the case when the employees are not much experienced or they are poorly trained so the less experience cause to less performance due to which the actual time needed should be more than the standard one
Answer:
Declaration date:
Dr retained earnings $26400
Cr dividends payable $26400
Payment date:
Dr dividends payable $26400
Cr Cash $26400
Explanation:
Total dividend declared is the number of shares multiplied by cash dividend per share
total dividend=$3*8,800=$26400
On the record date no entries are required since record date, is just about verifying the bonafide shareholders.
On declaration date,dividends payable would be credited with $26,400 while retained earnings is debited.
On payment date,dividends payable is debited and cash credited
