It is known as improvisation.
Answer:
The operators have not violated the antitrust laws because they are only collaborating to lobby the government
Explanation:
The antitrust law in the U.S. can be described as a group of federal and state government laws enacted to regulate the activities of business firms in order to enhance competition to the advantage of consumers.
The antitrust law aims to collusive activities that suppress trade, any merger and acquisition that would reduce competition, and prevent the the abuse of monopoly power.
Since the activity of the operators of adult bookstores does not fall under what the antitrust law aims to prevent but it is just a collaboration to lobby the government, they have a good defense that they have not violated the antitrust laws.
In India, the majority of properties are sold with the help of a real estate broker or agent. When the broker helps a seller and buyer get in touch with each other and both the parties agree to engage in the transaction, then both the parties are required to pay a certain %age of the property value as a fee to the real estate broker. Read below to know about the real estate broker commission rates India:
There are no specific guidelines laid for the commission paid to real estate brokers. In India, real estate agents usually ask the seller and the buyer to pay 1-2% of the deal value as their commission, also known as the real estate brokerage fee.
Answer:
c. auditors and financial statement users.
Explanation:
This is because, the auditors and the financial statement users tends to have different views on what their responsibilities are. Since their views differs, their tend to be a gap which occurs. <em>This gap is called audit expectation gap. This could be minimized through self regulating auditing of the financial statement before the final auditing by auditors.</em>
Answer:
E. January 1, 2017
Explanation:
Financial statements are prepared showing at least two years for the sake of comparability.
It will be important for the company in presenting its financial statement using the IFRS for the year ended December 31st 2018 to show the financial statements for the year ended 31st December 2017 as if it had always applied the IFRS.
The basic idea is to show in the financial statements the effects of adopting the IFRS from a preceding period in order for the entity to show the financial statement for 2017 and 2018 and be able to compare them having been prepared on the same basis.
Thus, the transition date will be the beginning of the preceding period when the IFRS was applied (1st Jan. 2017 oe 31st Dec. 2016).
I hope this explanation makes the concept easy to grasp.
Thank you.
