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Ivanshal [37]
3 years ago
9

How did the British Parliament respond to the colonists' opposition to the Stamp Act and boycott of English goods?

History
2 answers:
dimaraw [331]3 years ago
8 0
The British Parliament responded to the colonists' opposition by repealing the state act.
Rama09 [41]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

On March 22, 1765, the British Parliament passed the “Stamp Act” to help pay for British troops stationed in the colonies during the Seven Years' War. ... Adverse colonial reaction to the Stamp Act ranged from boycotts of British goods to riots and attacks on the tax collectors.

Explanation:

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Think about Laissez-Faire policies. Do you think the owners of these factories would like them? Why or why not?
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As I understand it, Laissez-faire ideology maintains that the "free market" is the best way to determine what businesses can and should do. This means that businesses, in competition with one another, should be free to determine their paths free from any government rules or regulations. The belief is that the competition among various businesses will ultimately result in the best outcomes for society in general - Adam Smith's "invisible hand". As part of this philosophy, workers should also be free to compete with each other and choose to work wherever they wish and this process will also result in the best results for the workers as well.

However, isn't there a huge assumption in this philosophy? Doesn't the whole justification of this belief depends on the condition that there is perfect competition and that any company and any worker have the equal ability to compete with one another?

What if there is no perfect competition? What if some companies have advantages - due to any of a whole array of reasons - that place them in a non-competitive position vis a vis their competitors? Without perfect competition then other companies are not necessarily able to compete with other companies that have certain advantages. If such a situation exists, then advantaged companies may have the ability to pursue a course that results in their private benefit, but not necessarily to the benefit of society as a whole. The same would apply to workers in that reduced competition among companies would result in decreased leverage for potential employees.

To recap, if the Laissez-faire ideology maintains the best economic policy for society as a whole, and it depends on there being perfect competition on an ongoing basis with minimal government intervention, doesn't it fall apart if there is less than the perfect competition?

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How did Elizabeth 1 promote on English empire
Lerok [7]

Answer:

Establishing the Roanoke Colony and chartering the East India Company during Elizabeth's reign was an onset of what would turn into the powerful British Empire. The Elizabethan age inspired national pride through classical ideals, international expansion, and naval triumph over the Spanish

Explanation:

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