The present worth of this business it has been calculated is given as $302,898.
How to solve for the worth of the business
<u>In the first year</u>
Cash flow = 44000
PVF at 9.7% = 0.91158
The present value = 0.91158 * 44000
= $40106
<u>In the second year </u>
Cash flow = $61,000,
PVF at 9.7% = 0.83097
The present value = $50689.17
<u>In the third year</u>
Cash flow = $80,000
PVF at 9.7% = 0.7575
The present value = $60600
<u>In the 4th year </u>
Cash flow = $200,000
PVF at 9.7% = 0.7575
The present value = $151,500
The worth of the business today is going to be the sum of all the present values
= $151,500 + $60600 + $40106.52 + $50689.17
= $302,898
Read more on present value here: brainly.com/question/20813161
#SPJ1
Answer:
See the explanation section.
Explanation:
Mar. 4 Cleaning supplies debit = $77
Accounts payable - Health-Rite Supplies credit = $77
<em>To record the purchase of supplies.</em>
Mar. 19 Office equipment Debit = $3,750
Accounts payable - office Warehouse Credit = $3,750
<em>To record the purchase of office equipment on account.</em>
Mar. 23 Cleaning supplies Debit = $224
Accounts payable - Rubble Supplies Credit = $224
<em>To record the purchase of supplies.</em>
Amounts withheld from employee's earnings for the employee income tax is considered a liability by the employer until the government is paid
What is liability?
Liability means the obligation that one party owes another, whose settlement requires the indebted party to transfer cash or equivalent value of other benefits commensurate to the liability to the other party.
In this case, the employees owe the government income taxes, whereby the employees have discharged the obligation by having the employers deduct them from their earnings.
The onus is now on the employers to make payments in respect of the income taxes withheld to the tax authority, prior to which the taxes are treated as the employer's liability.
Find out more about liability on:brainly.com/question/17090843
#SPJ1
Missing options:
(A) assets. (B) liabilities. (C) salary expense. (D) revenue.
Answer:
1,500 units; 1,000 units
Explanation:
Break Even Point (in units) = Fixed cost ÷ Contribution margin per unit
Fixed cost = $160,000
Sales Mix = 60% of X + 40% of Y
= 0.6X + 0.4Y
So,
Contribution Margin of the Mix:
= (60% × contribution margin of X) + (40% × contribution margin of Y
)
Contribution Margin of the Mix per unit:
= (60% × 80) + (40% × 40)
= 48 + 16
= $64
Break Even Point (in units) = Fixed cost ÷ Contribution margin per unit
= 160,000 ÷ 64
= 2,500 unit
At the Level of break even
:
Unit of X at break-even:
= 60% of 2,500
= 1,500 units
Unit of Y at break-even:
= 40% of 2,500
= 1,000 units
Answer:
the capital structure weight of the firm's equity will be 57.14 %.
Explanation:
Weighted Average Cost of Capital is the return that is required by the providers of long term sources of finance.
A debt–equity ratio of 0.75 means:
Debt : Equity = 0.75 : 1
The Total Ratio will be = 0.75 + 1.00
= 1.75
Therefore, the capital structure weight of the firm's equity will be :
Equity Weight = Equity Ratio ÷ Total Ratio
= 1.00 ÷ 1.75
= 0.5714 or 57.14 %