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Sidana [21]
2 years ago
8

Rankine Company estimates its bad debts expense by aging its accounts receivable and applying percentages to various age groups

of the accounts. Rankine calculated a total of $8,000 in possible credit losses as of December 31. Accounts Receivable has a balance of $256,000, and the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $1,000 before adjustment at December 31. What is the December 31 adjusting entry to provide for credit losses? General Journal Description Debit Credit Answer Answer Answer Answer Answer Answer What is the net amount of accounts receivable that should be included in current assets?
Business
1 answer:
guapka [62]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Net amount of accounts receivable that should be included in current assets:

= Accounts receivable - Allowance for doubtful accounts

= $256,000 - $8,000

= $248,000

The journal entry is as follows:

Bad debt expense[$8,000 - $1,000] A/c Dr. $7,000

           To Allowance for doubtful accounts               $7,000

(To record the bad debt expense)

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Thad Morgan, a motorcycle enthusiast, has been exploring the possibility of relaunching the Western Hombre brand of cycle that w
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

Explanation:

a. Break even in unit sales =  (Fixed expenses ) ÷ (Contribution margin per unit)

= $1,890,000 ÷ ($14,000 - $9,800)

= 450  units

b. Margin of safety = Expected sales - break even sales

= ($14,000 × 600) - ($14,000 × 450)

= $2,100,000

Contribution margin  = Sales - Variable cost

= ($14,000 × 600) - ($9,800 × 600)

= $2,520,000

Profit before earning and tax  = Contribution margin - Annual fixed cost

= $2,520,000 - $1,890,000

= $630,000

c. Degree of operating leverage = Contribution ÷  Profit before earning and tax

= $2,520,000 ÷ $630,000

= 4

d. Loss on Net operating income = (Sales) - (Variable cost) - Fixed expenses

=($11,000 × 600) - ($9,800 × 600) - $1,456,000

= -$736,000

5 0
3 years ago
Manufacturing overhead was applied to production at 60 percent of the direct labor cost of $10,000. The entry under perpetual in
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

Dr Work in Process Inventory for $6,000

Cr Manufacturing $6,000

Explanation:

Preparation of The journal entry under perpetual inventory procedure

Based on the information given if the Manufacturing overhead was applied to production at 60% of the direct labor cost of the amount of $10,000 which means that The journal entry under perpetual inventory procedure is :

Dr. Work in Process Inventory for $6,000

Cr Manufacturing $6,000

(60%*$10,000)

4 0
3 years ago
Eleanor takes several high-cost prescription drugs. She would like to enroll in a standalone Part D prescription drug plan that
Fiesta28 [93]
A ....................
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A potential investor is seeking to invest $500,000 in a venture, which currently has 1,000,000 million shares held by its founde
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

a, 15%

b, 150,000

c, $ 3.30

d, = $3,333,333.33

e, $3,833,333.33

Explanation:

To solve this,

Note that we have been given a similar venture to compare to our venture.

The total shareholder's equity for the other venture (P) = $10,000,000 and the net income (E) = $1,000,000

Hence, Price/Earnings (P/E) for other venture = 10,000,000/1,000,000 = 10.0

Now for our venture, Earnings in the 5th year = $500,000

Assuming that P/E ratio for both the ventures to be equal, P/500,000 = 10.0

hence, total shareholder's value for our venture = $5,000,000 --------------- (1)

Now the investor invested $500,000 and expected 50% return after 5 years, hence the investor's value after 5 years would be equal to 500,000 * (1+50%) = $750,000 --------------- (2)

Now percent ownership of venture given to investor = (Value of investor's investment after 5 years/total value of all shareholders after 5 years)

Hence, divide (2) by (1)

percent ownership of venture given to investor = 750,000/5,000,000 = 0.15

or 15%

Therefore Answer to part 'a' is = 15%

Part (b) :For the percentage ownership given to new investor = 15%, total number of shares = 1,000,000

Hence, number of shares issued to new investor = 15% x 1,000,000 = 150,000

Hence, answer to part b = 150,000

Part (c): Amount invested by new investor = $500,000 and number of shares issued to him = 150,000

hence issue price of share = Amount invested / Number of shares issued

= 500,000/150,000 = $3.33

Hence, issue price per share = $3.33

Part (d):

The Pre money valuation is the value of the company before any external funding. In this case, the number of shares held with the founders before the new investor = 1,000,000 and the equity price = $3.33

hence, Value of the venture = 3.33 * 1,000,000 = $3,333,333.33

Hence, pre money valuation of the venture = $3,333,333.33

Part (e): Post money valuation of a company is the value of the company after external funding. In this case, investor invests $500,000 to the venture increasing the value of the company by the same amount.

Hence post money valuation = pre money valuation + Investment

= 3,333,333.33 + 500,000

= 3,833,333.33

Hence, post-money valuation of the venture = $3,833,333.33

7 0
3 years ago
A company borrowed $40,000 cash from the bank and signed a 6-year note at 7% annual interest. the present value of an annuity fa
Anna [14]
The present value (PV) of an annuity of P equal periodic payments for n years at r% is given by:

PV=Pa_{n\rceil r}

where a_{n\rceil r} is the <span>present value of an annuity factor for n years at r%.

Given that </span>a<span> company borrowed $40,000 cash from the bank and signed a 6-year note at 7% annual interest and that the present value of an annuity factor for 6 years at 7% is 4.7665.

Then

40000=4.7665P \\  \\ P= \frac{40000}{4.7665} =8,391.90

Therefore, </span><span>the annual annuity payments equals $8,391.90</span>
6 0
3 years ago
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