Viceroyalties were instiutions created by the Spanish monarchy to incorporate the colonized lands in America in the administration engines of the Empire. A viceroyalty was ruled by viceroy, a direct subordinates of the King, and was considered a province within the Empire and not a colony anymore.
The two viceroyalties existing in America prior to 1717 were:
- Viceroyalty of New Spain. It contained the current territory of Mexico, together with Southwestern states from the current US. It was the first one created by the Spanish in America in 1535.
- Viceroyalty of Peru, created in 1542, which contained almost the whole territory ruled by the Spanish in South America.
I’d say C . Trade deficits
Answer:
unlimited opportunity
Explanation:
The American settlers were promised<em> "economic opportunity" </em>upon settling in the west. They were given enough <u><em>freedom to own lands</em></u> and<u><em> cultivate their areas.</em></u> Many people actually left their homes. Many of them became independent and some even formed their own factories. Although it made America an even more powerful nation, it moved the Native Americans to the reservation areas.
The difference between the Social contract theories of both was that Hobbs believed<u> c) that the </u><u>people </u><u>could </u><u>overthrow </u><u>their</u><u> ruler </u><u>if that ruler was </u><u>abusing </u><u>their </u><u>power</u><u>. </u>
<h3>Social Contract according to Locke</h3>
- Government owes citizens the right to protect their property.
- If a government was not performing, they could be removed from power.
Hobbes on the other hand, believed that the government owed nothing to the citizens and so the people could not remove it even if it wasn't performing.
In conclusion, option c is correct.
Find out more on Locke's theory at brainly.com/question/14308888.
It could be, but why in competition