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Leviafan [203]
3 years ago
9

The Carbondale Hospital is considering the purchase of a new ambulance. The decision will rest partly on the anticipated mileage

to be driven next year. The miles driven during the past 5 years are as​ follows:
Year Mileage
1 3000
2 4000
3 3400
4 3800
5 3700

Required:
a. Forecast the mileage for next year using a 2-year moving average.
b. Find the MAD based on the 2-year moving average forecast in part (a), (Hint: You will have only 3 years of matched data.)
c. Use a weighted 2-year moving average with weights of .4 and .6 to forecast next year's mileage. (The weight of .6 is for the most recent year.) What MAD results from using this approach to forecasting? (Hint: You will have only 3 years of matched data.)
d. Compute the forecast for year 6 using exponential smoothing, an initial forecast for year 1 of 3,000 miles, and a = 0.5.
Business
1 answer:
liberstina [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

a. The moving average is calculated as:

= sum demand for 2 yr/2

The moving average for next year will be:

= (3800+3700)/2

= 7500/2

= 3,750 Miles

(b) The mean absolute deviation(MAD)

= Sum(|Dt-Ft|)/n

Therefore, the moving average for Y3 will be:

= (3000+4000)/2

= 7000/2

= 3500

Moving Avge for Y4 F(4) will be:

= (4000+3400)/2

= 3700

Moving Avge for Y5 will be:

= (3400+3800)/2

= 7200/2

= 3600

Therefore, MAD will be:

= Sum (|3500-3400|+|3700-3800|+|3600-3700|)/3

(100+100+100)/3

= 300/3

= 100

(c) Weighted moving average = sum (weight in period n) × (demand in period n)/Sum weights

So Weighted moving average for Y6 will be:

= ((3800 × 0.4)+(3700 × 0.6))/(0.4+0.6)

=1520 + 2220

= 3,740

MEAN ABSOLUTE DEVIATION:

= Sum(|Dt-Ft|)/n

Weighted moving average for Y3:

= (3000 × 0.4c+ 4000 × 0.6)/(0.4+0.6)

= 3600

Weighted moving average for Y4:

= (4000 × 0.4 + 3400 × 0.6)/(0.4+0.6)

= 3640

Weighted moving average for Y5:

= (3400 × 0.4+3800 × 0.6)/(0.4+0.6)

= 3640

Therefore, MAD

= Sum(|3600-3400|+|3640-3800|+|3640-3700|)/3

MAD = (200+160+60)/3 = 140

(d)Expomentioal Smoothing F(t) will now be:

SO F(1) = 3000 + 0.5 × (3000-3000)

= 3000

F(2) = 3000 + 0.5 × (4000-3000)

= 3500

F(3) = 3500 + 0.5 × (3400-3500)

= 3450

F(4) = 3450 + 0.5 × (3800-3450)

= 3625

F(5) = 3625 + 0.5 × (3700-3625)

= 3663

Therefore, forecast will now be 3663 miles

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____ [38]

Answer:

The estimated rate based on labour hour==6

The  actual rate based on labour hour=6.08

The rate based on machine hour=24

The rate based on machine hour= 22.66

Explanation:

Given that Carlson estimated its overhead costs to be $240,000,direct labor hours at 40,000 and machine hours at 10,000 as well as the actual overhead costs incurred of  $249,280, actual direct labor hours of  41,000, and actual machine hours of 11,000.We can calculate the to apply .

The estimated rate based on labour hour=240000/40000=6

The  actual rate based on labour hour=249280/41000=6.08

The rate based on machine hour=240000/10000=24

The rate based on machine hour=249280/11000=22.66

4 0
3 years ago
The table below shows some hypothetical data on the costs associated with the use of a liter of gasoline in a European country.
harina [27]

Answer:

The private cost for an individual of a liter of gasoline in Europe is 4.75

Explanation:

Private cost is a supplier's or producer's cost of providing goods and services without any external cost.

Private cost = 0.50 + 1 + 0.75 + 2.50

                    = 4.75

Therefore, The private cost for an individual of a liter of gasoline in Europe is 4.75

7 0
3 years ago
Ingram Electric Products is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's MIRR? No
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

the project's MIRR is 13.50 %.

Explanation:

MODIFIED INTERNAL RATE OF RETURN (MIRR)

-It is the rate that causes the Present Value of the Terminal Value (Future Cash flows at the end of the Project) to equal Present Value of Cash outflows.

-MIRR assumes a reinvestment rate at the end of the project

The First Step is to Calculate the Terminal Value at end of year 3.

Terminal Value (FV) = Sum of (PV x (1 + r) ^ 3 - n)

                                 = $350 x (1.11) ^ 2 + $350 x (1.11) ^ 1 + $350 x (1.11) ^ 0

                                 = $431.24 + $388.50 + $350.00

                                 = $1,169.74

The Next Step is to Calculate the MIRR using a Financial Calculator :

(-$800)        CFj

0          CFj

0          CFj

$1,169.74  CFj

Shift IRR/Yr 113.50 %

Therefore, the MIRR is 13.50 %

6 0
3 years ago
your firm is contemplating the purchase of a new $545,000 computer-based order entry system. the system will be depreciated stra
liberstina [14]

The IRR of the new computer-based order entry system is 22.87%.

<h3>What is the IRR?</h3>

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

The cash flow at the beginning of the period = purchase price of the system - reduction in working capital

$545,000 - $96,000 = $449,000

Depreciation expense = (cost of the asset - salvage value) / useful life

($545,000 - 0) / 5 = $109,000

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 5 = (amount saved - depreciation)(1 - taxes) + depreciation

($165,000 - $109,00)(1 - 0.22) + $109,000 = $152,680

Terminal cash flow = Salvage value - (tax x salvage value)

$71,000 - (0.22 x 71,000) = $55,380

IRR can be determined using a financial calculator:

Cash flow in year 0 = $-449,000

Cash flow in year 1 - 4= $152,680

Cash flow in year 5 = $152,680 + $55,380 = 208,060

IRR = 22.87%

To learn more about IRR, please check: brainly.com/question/26484024

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