Answer:
it would be 80.
Step-by-step explanation:
6. you add. tat
Answer:
a= 1/2 and b= 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
The given probability can be expressed in the form of binomial expansion where a= p and b= q
Therefore a= 1/2 and b= 1/2
For n= 8 trials the binomial expansion can be written as
[ p+q] ^n = [ 1/2+1/2]^8
=(1/2)^0(1/2)^8 +8C1(1/2)^7(1/2)+8C2(1/2)^6(1/2)^2+8C3(1/2)^5(1/2)^3+8C4(1/2)^4(1/2)^4+8C5(1/2)^3(1/2)^5+8C6(1/2)^2(1/2)^6+8C7(1/2)(1/2)^7+8C8(1/2)^0(1/2)^8
=
1(1/2)^0(1/2)^8 +8(1/2)^7(1/2)+28(1/2)^6(1/2)^2+56(1/2)^5(1/2)^3+70(1/2)^4(1/2)^4+56(1/2)^3(1/2)^5+28(1/2)^2(1/2)^6+8(1/2)(1/2)^7+1(1/2)^0(1/2)^8
=
1/(2)⁸ { 1+ 8+28+56+70+56+28+8+1}
= 1/(2)⁸ {256}
= 1
The total probability is always 1.
Also P+q= 1
1/2+1/2= 1
Answer:
she would have worked 11 hours because 182 divide by 13 got 14 so 154 divide by 14 you get 11.
T = 2 and t=0
i hope this helped. if i did it wrong i apologize.
Answer:
The mode cannot be determined.
Step-by-step explanation:
The reason it cannot be determined is because there is no common value since they all appear just once.