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kogti [31]
3 years ago
13

Sarah Simpson is insured for bodily injury in the amount of 10/20. She is at fault in an accident in which Fred Vail is injured.

Also injured in the accident is a pedestrian, Arthur Abel. Arthur's medical expenses total $16,000; Fred's come to $8,000. How much will the insurance pay?
arthur:
fred:
total:
Mathematics
2 answers:
katen-ka-za [31]3 years ago
4 0
Okay, so the insurance cover 10/20 which means 50/100 (50%). 
So to find 50%, you just divide your price by 2. 
Arthur : $16,000 / 2 = $8,000.
Fred : $8,000 / 2 = $4,000.
Now, you have to add the two amount to find the total amount that the insurance will pay. 
Total : $4,000 + $8,000 = $12,000. 
Hope I helped you !
liubo4ka [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The total amount to be paid = $18000

Step-by-step explanation:

Arthur:  $10000

Fred:  $8000

Total: $18000

The numbers 10/20 means 10 stands for $10000 and 20 stands for $20000. In total $20000 will be given to all persons.

So, Fred will get a maximum of $10000, but his bill is $8000, so he will get $8000. And Arthur will get $10000 as this is liability limit. So, both will get a total of $18000.

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For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Express cos k as a fraction in simplest terms.
yan [13]

soh cah toa

that is the saying I use

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6 0
2 years ago
Jayden sells snow cones for $3.75 each. He started the day with a total of 300 snow cones to sell. If he made a total of $843.75
Leni [432]

Number of cone left is 75 cone

<u>Given that;</u>

Cost of each cone = $3.75 each

Starting number of cone = 300

Total amount earn = $843.75

<u>Find:</u>

Number of cone left

<u>Computation:</u>

Number of cone sale = Total amount earn / Cost of each cone

Number of cone sale = 843.75 / 3.75

Number of cone sale = 225 cone

Number of cone left = Starting number of cone - Number of cone sale

Number of cone left = 300 - 225

Number of cone left = 75 cone

Learn more:

brainly.com/question/4115571?referrer=searchResults

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nadezda [96]

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8 0
3 years ago
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