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Talja [164]
3 years ago
15

If the function f(x)=mx+b has an inverse function, which statement must be true

Mathematics
2 answers:
skelet666 [1.2K]3 years ago
7 0
Im pretty sure its
m=/0 because when m is 0 then f(x) does not depend on the value of x.
Hope this helped!
Sergeu [11.5K]3 years ago
5 0

The things we know that are true based on this is that m does not equal 0 and the inverse function is f(x) = \frac{x - b}{m}.

We know that the slope is not 0, because there is no inverse function if this is the case.

Secondly, we can find the inverse function by switching f(x) and x and solving for the new f(x). The work for this is below.

f(x) = mx + b ----> switch f(x) and x

x = mf(x) + b ----> subtract b

x - b = mf(x) ----> divide by m

f(x) = \frac{x - b}{m}.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Lots of 40 components each are deemed unacceptable if they contain 3 or more defectives. The procedure for sampling a lot is to
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The probability of founding exactly one defective item in the sample is P=0.275.

The mean and variance of defective components in the sample are:

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Step-by-step explanation:

In the case we have a lot with 3 defectives components, the proportion of defectives is:

p=3/40=0.075

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b) The mean and variance of defective components in the sample is:

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P(|X-\mu|\geq k\sigma)\leq \frac{1}{k^2}

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5x - 2y = 3, -5x + 4y = 9 solutions
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