If the function f(x)=mx+b has an inverse function, which statement must be true

2 answers:

7 0

Im pretty sure its
m=/0 because when m is 0 then f(x) does not depend on the value of x.
Hope this helped!

5 0

The things we know that are true based on this is that m does not equal 0 and the inverse function is f(x) = $\frac{x - b}{m}$ .

We know that the slope is not 0, because there is no inverse function if this is the case.

Secondly, we can find the inverse function by switching f(x) and x and solving for the new f(x). The work for this is below.

f(x) = mx + b ----> switch f(x) and x

x = mf(x) + b ----> subtract b

x - b = mf(x) ----> divide by m

f(x) = $\frac{x - b}{m}$ .

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jolli1 [7]

i think the answer to this is 3.15

4 0

3 years ago

Gre4nikov [31]

Answer:

$f(4)=\frac{1}{2}$

f(x) = 4 when x is 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Domain is the set of x values that make the function defined. Allowed x values for the function (mapping).

The Range is the set of y values that make the function defined. Allowed y values for the function (mapping).

Whenever we need to find f(a), suppose, then we look for "a" in the domain and see its corresponding value mapping in the range.
Whenever we will be given a value for f(x) = a, suppose, and we have to find "x", we look at the value a in the range and find corresponding x value in the domain.

Firstly, we need f(4), so we look for "4" in domain and see which number it corresponds to in range.

That is $\frac{1}{2}$