Answer:
c. total revenue does not change.
Explanation:
A price elasticity of demand can be defined as a measure of the responsiveness of the quantity of a product demanded with respect to a change in price of the product, all things being equal.
Mathematically, the price elasticity of demand is given by the formula;
The demand for goods is said to be elastic, when the quantity of goods demanded by consumers with respect to change in price is very large. Thus, the more easily a consumer can switch to a substitute product in relation to change in price, the greater the elasticity of demand.
Generally, consumers would like to be buy a product as its price falls or become inexpensive.
For substitute products (goods), the price elasticity of demand is always positive because the demand of a product increases when the price of its close substitute (alternative) increases.
If the price elasticity of demand for a product equals 1, as its price rises the total revenue does not change because the demand is unit elastic.
Answer: True
Explanation:
Decision regarding an asset replacement is usually based on both the internal rate of return and the net present value of the incremental cash flows.
Therefore, it should be noted that this brings about the complications when comparing the development of relevant cash flows to the expansion decisions.
Answer:
Economies of scale
Explanation:
Economies of scale is described as the cost benefit or advantage which is experienced through the firm, when it rises the output level. Under economies of scale, the fixed costs did not vary or change with decreases or increases in the units of the production volume and the variable costs are dependent with rise in the output.
So, in this case, when the circumference is doubled of the oil pipeline, more than the volume doubles. This technique is selected through the large firms or business as it will result in the economies of scale.
Answer:
Interest will be $855 x 10 years= $8,550
Explanation:
Interest
6÷100=0.06
0.06x14,250=$855
$855x10=$8,550.
How much to have paid back
At the end of 10years $8,550 would have been paid as interest
Total sum will be $14,250+$8,550=$22,800 to be paid back.
Answer:
The monetary value is $24,201.23
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flows:
Year 1= $6,800
Year 2= 6,800
Year 3= 6,800
Year 4= $15,000.
The discount rate is 15 percent.
We need to discount each cash flow to the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
Year 1= 6,800/1.15= 5,913.04
Year 2= 6,800/1.15^2= 5,141.78
Year 3= 6,800/1.15^3= 4,471.11
Year 4= 15,000/ 1.15^4= 8,576.30
Total= $24,201.23
