This is an illustration of correlation without causation.
Explanation:
For Example:
The inspectors who are poorly informed calculate shoe size and decipher comprehension. You note that both are linked favourably. Their report claiming smaller feet lead to better reading skills is, of course, denied. Given the connection between the two, foot size does not affect better reading abilities.
First of all, age estimation is related both to the foot size and comprehension of the reading. The another missing element is a philosophical and analytical model that can be used to explain the causal relationships from age to foot and from age to understanding through reading. Older existence is associated with both and because we have a rational conceptual model for human experiences which is in line with such an explanation, we assume it is the origin of both.
Answer:
b.The IRR is equal to 25.85%
Explanation:
Firstly we are given that i consider investing $100000 which will in this problem be our Cinitial which is the initial investment for the project.
Then now given the risk of this project, my cost of capital is 20% so then we will compare this to the IRR and see if i can accept the project or not if the cost of capital is greater than the IRR than its not good to invest on the project but if the cost of capital is less than the IRR then the this will be a good investment as the cost of capital also checks the opportunity cost.
The future payment cash flows which is $500000 so we will use the following formula:
NPV = (cash flow)/(1+IRR)^n - initial investment
so we find the present value of the cash flow of the investment and subract the initial investment which will give us a zero cause the present value of the cash flow is equal to the initial investment therefore( n is the period of cash flows):
0= $500000/(1+IRR)^7 - $100000 transpose the initial investment and solve for IRR.
$100000(1+IRR)^7= $500000 then divide both sides by $100000
(1+IRR)^7 = 5 then find the 7nth root of both sides to eliminate the exponent of 7
1+ IRR = ![\sqrt[7]{5}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csqrt%5B7%5D%7B5%7D)
1+IRR = 1.258498951 then subtract 1 both sides to solve for IRR
IRR = 0.258498... then multiply by 100 as IRR is a percentage
IRR= 25.85 % rounded off to two decimal places which is the answer b
Answer:
B. Weighted average cost of capital
Explanation:
The Weighted average cost of capital is abbreviated as the WACC. It is the weighted average of cost of common equity, cost of preferred equity and aftertax cost of debt. For a company to have a breakeven in returns, they need to earn a minimum rate of return on its assets which is equivalent to the weighted average cost of capital(WACC) making choice B correct.
I’m pretty sure it’s d sorry if it’s wrong!
Answer:
B. gives the same answer regardless of the direction of change
Explanation:
The computation of the price elasticity of demand using mid point formula is shown below:
Price elasticity of demand = (Percentage change in quantity demanded) ÷ (percentage change in price)
where,
Percentage change in quantity demanded is
= (change in quantity demanded ÷ average of quantity demanded)
And,
The percentage change in price is
= (percentage change in price ÷ average of price)
Therefore, it reflects the same answer
