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miskamm [114]
2 years ago
14

Find the Taylor series for f(x)=sin(x) centered at c=π/2.sin(x)=∑ n=0 [infinity]On what interval is the expansion valid? Give yo

ur answer using interval notation.
Mathematics
1 answer:
agasfer [191]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

sinx =1-\frac{1}{2} (x-\frac{\pi}{2} )^2+\frac{1}{24} (x-\frac{\pi}{2} )^4-\frac{1}{720} (x-\frac{\pi}{2} )^6+\frac{1}{40320} (x-\frac{\pi}{2} )^8+...

Step-by-step explanation:

given that f(x) = sin x

we have to find the Taylor series for that

f(x) = sin x   : f( = 1\\f'(x) = cos x :(f'\frac{\pi}{2})=0\\f"(x) = -sinx :f" (\frac{\pi}{2}) =-1\\f^4 (x) = -cosx : f^4 (\frac{\pi}{2}) =0

and so on.

i.e. 2nd, 4th, 6th terms would be 0

and also 1st, 5th, 9th terms would be positive for f value and 3rd, 9th,... would be negative

Using the above we can write Taylor series as

f(x) = f(a)+\frac{f'(a)}{1!} (x-\frac{\pi}{2}) +...+f^n(a) /n! (x- \frac{\pi}{2})^n+...

sinx =1-\frac{1}{2} (x-\frac{\pi}{2} )^2+\frac{1}{24} (x-\frac{\pi}{2} )^4-\frac{1}{720} (x-\frac{\pi}{2} )^6+\frac{1}{40320} (x-\frac{\pi}{2} )^8+...

This is valid for all real values of x.

x ∈(-\infty, infty)

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