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mariarad [96]
3 years ago
6

Cross Town Cookies is an all-equity firm with a total market value of $770,000. The firm has 46,000 shares of stock outstanding.

Management is considering issuing $191,000 of debt at an interest rate of 7 percent and using the proceeds to repurchase shares. Before the debt issue, EBIT will be $69,800. What is the EPS if the debt is issued
Business
1 answer:
Yuki888 [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

EPS after debt issue =  $1.63

Explanation:

The earning per share after the debt issue is referred to mas revised earnings per share. Th revised earnings per share =

Revised earnings / No of shares after debt issue

Revised Earnings =EBIT before debt issue - Interest cost

        =  69,800 - (7%× 191,000) = $56,430

<em>Units of shares re-purchased = Proceeds from debt / price per share</em>

<em>Price per share</em> =  Market value of firm /outstanding shares

                           = $770,000/46,000 = 16.73913043

<em>Units of shares re-purchased</em> = $191,000/ 16.73913043

                                                = 11,410.39 units

Revised outstanding shares = 46,000 -  11,410.39 =  34,589.61 units

EPS after debt issue= $56,430/ 34,589.61  units

                                   =  $1.63

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valkas [14]

$96,000 would be the indirect costs allocated to the commercial department.

These include expenses linked to many projects and expenses unrelated to the project's actual construction. Examples of typical indirect project costs include payroll taxes, employee benefits, workers' compensation insurance, general liability insurance, and equipment fuel and maintenance.

<h3>What is DLH?</h3>

indirect expenses are accounting, auditing, and legal fees, as well as business permits, office expenses, rent, supervisor salaries, telephone expense, and utilities. Indirect expenses may or may not be allocated.

Following is how the price per unit is calculated: Divide $272,000 by 17,000 direct labor hours to get $16.

17,000 direct work hours were contributed by both consumers and enterprises in total (11,000 + 6,000).

Currently, the indirect cost per unit is $96,000, or about 16,600 hours of commercial direct labor.

The amount of direct labor hours required to create one unit of a product is known as the direct labor hours. By dividing the total number of finished items by the total amount of direct labor hours required to produce them, the figure is obtained.

To learn more about  DLH refer to:

https://brainly.in/question/13594332

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3 0
1 year ago
North Airline Company is considering expanding its territory. The company has the opportunity to purchase one of two different u
-Dominant- [34]

Answer:

First Airplane Payback Period = 3 years

Second Airplane Payback Period = 4 years

Since, First Airplane is going to repay the Original Cost of the Airplane in shorter amount of time as compared to Second Airplane. Therefore, if the the decision is based on the payback approach the North should accept First Airplane.

Explanation:

NORTH AIRLINE COMPANY

<u>First Airplane:</u>                

Payback Period = Original Cost of the Asset / Annual Cash Inflow

Payback Period = $12,000,000 / $4,000,000

Payback Period = 3 years

<u>Second Airplane:</u>

Payback Period = Original Cost of the Asset / Annual Cash Inflow

Payback Period = $24,000,000 / $6,000,000

Payback Period = 4 years

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Bries Corporation is preparing its cash budget for January. The budgeted beginning cash balance is $18,500. Budgeted cash receip
mel-nik [20]

Answer:

$15,500

Explanation:

Whenever there is a movement in cash over a given period, it is usually as a result of receipts and disbursement over the period and can be denoted as;

Opening balance + Receipts - Disbursements = Closing balance.

However, if the company intends to maintain closing balance, the amount to be borrowed would form part of the receipts.

$18,500 + receipts - $189,000 = $30,500

Receipts = $30,500 + $189,000 - $18,500

Receipts = $201,000

Given budgeted cash receipts, totalled $185,500, then amount to borrow

= $201,000 - $185,500

= $15,500

7 0
2 years ago
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inessss [21]

Answer:

Annuity will be $33112.644  

Explanation:

We have given future value ( FV ) = $4000000

Rate of interest r = 5% = 0.05

Number of periods n = 40

We know that future value is given by Futurte\ value(FV)=\frac{A}{r}[(1+r)^n-1]

Here A is annuity

So 4000000=\frac{A}{0.05}[(1+0.05)^{40}-1]

200000=A[(1+0.05)^{40}-1]

200000=A\times 6.0399

A=$33112.644

So annuity will be $33112.644

4 0
2 years ago
2.<br> The stud of economics is basically about what two things?
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:The two main branches of economics are microeconomics and macroeconomics

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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