Answer:
okay
Explanation:
the question is still here
I would assume the assume is TRUE considering Pearl Harbor was undefended and unable to retaliate.
Hope this is the answer you were looking for and that it helps!! :)
Leading up to this war between England the new nation, the United States, was the conflict between two European powers, France & England. Napolean of France dominated the European continent & the British dominated the sea with its superior Navy.
<span>The basic problem for the US was the battle for power between England & France. </span>
<span>England put forth a declaration that was called the </span>Orders in<span> Council... </span>
<span>This declaration barred neutral nations from trading with France & her allies. The English plan was to deprive France from receiving essential products by sea from neutral nations such as the United States. The US had developed trade between itself & France and this could be accomplished only by merchant vessels. The problem faced by the USA was that the seas were ruled by the British Royal Navy. </span>
<span>British warships would stop USA ships and kidnap US sailors & the US had no Navy to speak of to stop this. This then was the problem faced by the USA at the beginning of the war between the USA & Britain called the War of 1812. So it's mostly about the shortage of american goods. </span>
The supreme court heard a number of cases involving slavery in the late 1840s and 1850s. With one mnor exception, slaveowners won every one of these cases and the court overwhelmingly supported the power of congress to assist them in recobering fugitive slaves.
