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Katena32 [7]
3 years ago
15

What is the value of cos(x) if tan ( x)= -2 and x is in quadrant of IV?

Mathematics
1 answer:
scoray [572]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

cos(x)=\frac{\sqrt{5}}{5}

Step-by-step explanation:

we have that

tan(x)=-2

The angle x is in quadrant IV

That means ---> The value of cos(x) is positive and the value of sin(x) is negative

Remember that

cos^2(x)+sin^2(x)=1 ----> equation A

tan(x)=\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}

so

-2=\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}

sin(x)=-2cos(x) ----> equation B

substitute equation B in equation A

cos^2(x)+(-2cos(x))^2=1

solve for cos(x)

cos^2(x)+4cos^2(x)=1

5cos^2(x)=1

cos^2(x)=\frac{1}{5}

square root both sides

cos(x)=\pm\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}

but remember that the value of cos(x) is positive (IV quadrant)

cos(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}

simplify

cos(x)=\frac{\sqrt{5}}{5}

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Ksivusya [100]

The answer is the third one -2.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 150,000,000 in scientific notion, PLEASE answer asap im so far behind!!
dybincka [34]

To write a number in scientific notation, you need to write the number as a product of a number from 1 to under 10 multiplied by a integer power of 10.

First, what number from 1 to under 10 can you get out of the digits of 150,000,000 just by changing the decimal point? The answer is 1.5 since 1.5 is greater than or equal to 1 and less than 10.

150,000,000 = 1.5 * 100,000,000

Now we change 100,000,000 into a power of 10. A 1 followed by a number of zeros is the same as 10 to the power equal to the number of zeros. In 100,000,000 the 1 is followed by 8 zeros, so 100,000,000 = 10^8.

150,000,000 = 1.5 * 10^8

6 0
3 years ago
1.8 divided by 3 please.
lidiya [134]

Answer: 0.6 is the answer

8 0
2 years ago
Susan threw a softball 42 years on her first try and 51 1/3 yard on her second try. How much farther did she throw the softball
Andru [333]

Answer:

28 feet farther than 1st ball.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given that Susan threw a softball 42 yards on her first try and 51\frac{1}{3} yard on her second try.

To find second ball is how much farther from the 1st ball, we will subtract 42 yards from 51\frac{1}{3} yards.

\text{The second ball is farther from 1st ball}=51\frac{1}{3}\text{ yards}-42\text{ yards}

\text{The second ball is farther from 1st ball}=\frac{154}{3}\text{ yards}-42\text{ yards}

Let us have a common denominator.

\text{The second ball is farther from 1st ball}=\frac{154}{3}\text{ yards}-\frac{42*3}{3}\text{ yards}  

\text{The second ball is farther from 1st ball}=\frac{154}{3}\text{ yards}-\frac{126}{3}\text{ yards}

\text{The second ball is farther from 1st ball}=\frac{154-126}{3}\text{ yards}

\text{The second ball is farther from 1st ball}=\frac{28}{3}\text{ yards}

\text{1 yard}=3\text{ feet}

\frac{28}{3}\text{ yards}=\frac{28}{3}\times 3\text{ feet}

\frac{28}{3}\text{ yards}=28\text{ feet}

Therefore, Susan thrown the second ball 28 feet farther from the 1st ball.

7 0
4 years ago
How many terms of the arithmetic progression 2,5,8..Must be taken to get a sum of 392?​
AveGali [126]

Answer:

Number of term = 48

Step-by-step explanation:

GIven:

Arithmetic progression

2,5,8..

Total sum of Arithmetic progression is 392

Find:

Number of term

Computation:

First term a = 2

Difference d = 5 - 2 = 3

Sn = [n/2][2a + (n-1)d]

392 = [n/2][2(2) + (n-1)3]

392 = [n/2][4 + 3n - 3]

784 = [n][1 + 3n]

784 = n + 3n²

3n² + n - 784

n = 48 , n = -49

Number of term = 48

6 0
3 years ago
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