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ASHA 777 [7]
3 years ago
11

1. A small-scale businessman deposits money at the beginning of each year into his savings account, depending on the level of th

e business’ returns. He deposits $1000 in the first year, $3000 in the second year, $5000 in the third and $7000 in the fourth year and annual interest rate of 7%. What is the value of the investment at the time of his first deposit?
Business
1 answer:
quester [9]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The value of the investment at the time of his first deposit is $1,000.

At the end of the first year, the investment will be worth $1,070.

Explanation:

The value of a deposit investment is determined by the interest rate and time.  Time affects the value of an investment by this small-scale businessman in many ways.  The passage of time increases the value of his investment.  However, the total increase may not be due to the interest rate, but inflation also affects asset's value.  For this businessman to make a gain in the investment, the interest rate must be higher than the inflation rate.  Otherwise, the investment loses money due to the effects of inflation, which reduces the real value of an asset over time.

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The rule of 70 applies in any growth-rate application. Let’s say you have $2000.00 in savings and you have three alternatives fo
vekshin1

Answer:

(a)70 years

(b)23.33 years

(c)8.75 years

Explanation:

According to the Rule of 70, for a given interest rate x, funds double in \frac{70}{x} years.

(a)For a savings account earning 1% interest per year,

The number of years it will take the fund to double= \frac{70}{1} =70 years

(b)For a U.S. Treasury bond mutual fund earning 3% interest per year.

The number of years it will take the fund to double= \frac{70}{3} =23.33 years

(c)For a stock market mutual fund earning 8% interest per year.

The number of years it will take the fund to double= \frac{70}{8} =8.75 years

3 0
2 years ago
Under the percentage of completion method, if the actual costs are ____ the estimated costs, the taxpayer must pay interest on t
Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

The correct answer is Less than the estimated costs.

Explanation:

The percentage method completed is an accounting practice used to recognize income in long-term contracts.

When long-term projects (greater than one year) are undertaken, the costs and revenues associated with it are incurred throughout its life.

This accounting method, as its name suggests, allows the company to account for part of the associated income and expenses incurred as the project phases are completed. Thus, the percentage complete method is understood as a method of recognition of recognition of income and expenses that is applied continuously without having to defer income and expenses at the end of the project.

8 0
3 years ago
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) effectively united Singapore, Britain, and Japan into one market.
Nezavi [6.7K]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional economic block made up of 11 southeast Asian countries. The block's primary objectives are to promote economic, cultural, and social integration among the member countries. Members of ASEAN are  Brunei, Burma (Myanmar), Cambodia, Timor-Leste, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.

Singapore, Britain, and Japan are not members of ASEAN.   ASEAN is a regional body and Britain is not is Asian.

3 0
2 years ago
At Bapostsyl, a telecommunications company, marketing managers are hired after testing their strategic thinking capabilities thr
user100 [1]

Answer:

B) assessment centers

Explanation:

Since in the question it is mentioned that the company could hired marketing managers after testing their strategic thinking  by providing the job description i.e any task designed to provide you with an realistic summary of the day-to-day tasks you are interviewing.

So according to the given situation, the company uses the assessment centers so that they could analyze the individual performance at the time of interview

4 0
3 years ago
Bikul has just started a great job and plans to buy a fancy car worth $100,000. Bikul is risk-averse in money matters, but he li
dedylja [7]

Answer:

$10,000

Explanation:

Probability that Bikul wrecks the car is 0.10

loss of wrecking the car is $100000

Therefore risk of wrecking the car = Probability x loss

risk = 0.10 x 100000 = 10,000

premium can be equated with risk, hence premium = $10000

6 0
2 years ago
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