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Crank
3 years ago
7

What formula is used to show lines are parallelto one another?​

Mathematics
2 answers:
irinina [24]3 years ago
6 0
If you wanna find out if 2 lines are parallel you should compare the slopes. Pick two points XY to find the slope. Then put it into the formula y2 minus y1 divided by x2 minus x1. Then calculate the slope of both lines, if they are the same then the lines are parallel.
larisa86 [58]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

To figure out if 2 lines are parallel, compare their slopes. You can find the slope of a line by picking 2 points with XY coordinates, then put those coordinates into the formula Y2 minus Y1 divided by X2 minus X1. Calculate the slope of both lines. If they are the same, then the lines are parallel.

Step-by-step explanation:

To figure out if 2 lines are parallel, compare their slopes. You can find the slope of a line by picking 2 points with XY coordinates, then put those coordinates into the formula Y2 minus Y1 divided by X2 minus X1. Calculate the slope of both lines. If they are the same, then the lines are parallel.

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-2(3x-4)+3x=17 solve for x
Svetlanka [38]

x=-3

-6x + 8 + 3x = 17

-3x + 8 = 17

-3x = 17 - 8

-3x=9

x=-9/3

x=-3

4 0
3 years ago
(I will mark brainliest for the correct answer.)
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:

D. 31

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the mean of any group of numbers, you simply add up all the numbers and then divide by how many numbers there are.

Using a calculator or a pencil, add the following:

27 + 28 + 30 +28 + 28 + 31 + 29 + 33 + 28 + 28 + 31 + 33 + 41 + 41 + 25

= 461

The last step is to divide 461 by 15:

461/15 = 30.73

Round 30.73 to the nearest whole number and you get D. 31

3 0
3 years ago
15 pts. Prove that the function f from R to (0, oo) is bijective if - f(x)=x2 if r- Hint: each piece of the function helps to "c
solniwko [45]

Answer with explanation:

Given the function f from R  to (0,\infty)

f: R\rightarrow(0,\infty)

-f(x)=x^2

To prove that  the function is objective from R to  (0,\infty)

Proof:

f:(0,\infty )\rightarrow(0,\infty)

When we prove the function is bijective then we proves that function is one-one and onto.

First we prove that function is one-one

Let f(x_1)=f(x_2)

(x_1)^2=(x_2)^2

Cancel power on both side then we get

x_1=x_2

Hence, the function is one-one on domain [tex[(0,\infty)[/tex].

Now , we prove that function is onto function.

Let - f(x)=y

Then we get y=x^2

x=\sqrt y

The value of y is taken from (0,\infty)

Therefore, we can find pre image  for every value of y.

Hence, the function is onto function on domain (0,\infty)

Therefore, the given f:R\rightarrow(0.\infty) is bijective function on (0,\infty) not on  whole domain  R .

Hence, proved.

3 0
3 years ago
Cathy rolls a number cube that is labeled from 1 to 6.
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer: 2/3

Cathy rolls a number cube that is labeled from 1 to 6.

Total outcomes = {1,2,3,4,5,6}

she rolls an even number or a multiple of 3

Outcomes of an even number = {2,4,6}

Outcomes of multiple of 3 = {3,6}

so favorable outcomes of even number or a multiple of 3 = {2,3,4,6}

Probability ( any event) =number of favorable outcomes divide by total  number of outcomes

probability(even number or a multiple of 3) = \frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}

7 0
3 years ago
HELPPP
kupik [55]
Your answer is 10 pieces
3 0
3 years ago
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