Answer:
PV = $9,245.56
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Future value (FV)= $10,000
Number of periods (n)= 2 years
Discount rate (i)= 4% = 0.04
<u>To calculate the present value (PV), we need to use the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
PV = FV / (1 + i)^n
PV = 10,000 / (1.04^2)
PV = $9,245.56
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A compensated absence is employee time off with pay, which can arise in such situations as sick leave, holidays, vacations, and jury duty. To account for compensated absences, it is not necessary to separately recognize them when they are earned and used within the same period, since it is typically rolled into the general compensation expense. However, they must be charged to expense and recorded as a liability when they are earned and their use is deferred to a later period.
An employer should accrue a liability for compensated absences payable to employees for their future absences, but only if all of the following conditions are met:
• The payment obligation for future absences is based on employee services already rendered.
• The amount of the obligation can be reasonably estimated.
• Payment is probable.
• The obligation is for employee rights that vest or accumulate.
Answer:
20 million gallons
Explanation
The market quantity supplied can be found by adding the quanirty supplied of the 5 suppliers.
When price is $1.5, tucker supplies 3 million gallons
3 + 10+2 + 5 + 0 = 20
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
The correct answer is $1,881,600
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:
Unit sells = 10,000 units
Growth rate = 12%
Selling price = $150 per unit
Costing = $100 per unit
So, we can calculate the budget sales revenue by using following formula:
Budget sales unit for quarter 3 = (10,000 × 112%) × 112% = 12,544
So, budget sales amount for quarter 3 = 12,544 × $150
= $1,881,600
Answer:
The answer is "1.1"
Explanation:
In the case of a single Interest, the principal value is determined as follows:
In case of discount:
Let income amount = 100, time = 1.5 years, and rate =20 %.
Formula:
A = P(1+rt)
A =P+I
by putting vale in the above formula we get the value that is = 76.92, thus method A will give 76.92 value.
If we calculate discount then the formula is:
P = M(1-rt)
M = 100 rate and time is same as above.
Thus Method B will give the value that is 70
calculating ratio value:
