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3 years ago

What effect will this adjustment have on the accounting records?

Business

1 answer:

12345 [234]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

a.Increase Net Income

Explanation:

Unearned Revenue

The Accrual Principle requires Incomes and expenses to be recorded in the period they occur or incur.

Revenue not earned has not yet occurred and can not be recognized hence no effect on revenues reported for the period.

Fees earned

Fees earned represents increases in economic benefits from non primary activities of the company.

This has the overall effect of increasing Net income in the reporting period

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List 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of budgeting.

likoan [24]

<h3>Two advantages of budgeting;</h3>

i. Manage your money effectively.

ii. Monitor performance.

<h3 /><h3 /><h3>Two disadvantages of budgeting;</h3>

i. Time required.

ii. Gaming the system.

iii. Blame of outcomes.

7 0

3 years ago

A customers calls her broker to discuss her account. The broker recommends that the customer buy 500 shares of DEF stock. The cu

KIM [24]

Answer:

A. <u>Market Order</u>

Explanation:

In a market order, the securities are bought and sold immediately at the current market price prevailing at that time of the day.

Under this, order size is entered such as quantity of stock, the action to be taken i.e buy or sell and no buying/selling rate is mentioned, rather "market" option is checked.

Such market price keeps fluctuating every every moment so the order would be completed at that price which prevailed at that exact moment.

In the given case, the broker upon instructions of the client immediately got the order executed of 500 shares in less than a minute. This is the case of market order wherein the order was executed at current market price.

3 0

4 years ago

Anna35 [415]

Answer:

<u>Foreign trade</u>

Explanation:

Often times a major determiner of the value of countries currency is the amount of their exports.

Thomas therefore as a financial advisor <em>should advise the government to build more on production of locally available materials that are highly demanded internationally for exports, by so doing he could improve the country's currency</em>.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is A. The free cash flow method is not used widely in practice. B. The ter

SSSSS [86.1K]

The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.

In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.

So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.

Hence, the Option B is correct.

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<em>brainly.com/question/22593826</em>

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2 years ago

Plum Corporation began the month of May with $1,400,000 of current assets, a current ratio of 1.90:1, and an acid-test ratio of

matrenka [14]

Answer:

Plum Corporation

(1) current ratio = Current assets/current liabilities

(2) acid-test ratio = (Current asset -Inventory)/Current liabilities

(3) working capital = Current assets minus Current liabilities

(4) acid-test assets = quick assets

May 2 Purchased $75,000 of merchandise inventory on credit.

Current Assets: $1,400,000 + $75,000 = $1,475,000

Current Liabilities: $737,000 + $75,000 = $812,000

Inventory: $147,000 +$75,000 = $222,000

(1) current ratio = $1,475,000/$812,000

= 1.82:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,475,000 - $222,000/$812,000

= 1.54:1

(3) working capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

= $1,475,000 - $812,000

= $663,000

May 8 Sold merchandise inventory that cost $55,000 for $150,000 cash.

Current Assets: $1,475,000 -55,000 + 150,000 = $1,570,000

Current Liabilities: $812,000

Inventory: $222,000 - 55,000 = $167,000

Quick Assets = $1,570,000 - 167,000 = $1,403,000

(1) current ratio = $1,570,000/$812,000

= 1.93

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,403,000/$812,000

= 1.73

(3) working capital = $1,570,000 - $812,000

= $758,000

May 10 Collected $26,000 cash on an account receivable.

Current Assets: $1,570,000 ($26,000 - $26,000) = $1,570,000

Current Liabilities: $812,000

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,570,000 - 167,000 = $1,403,000

(1) current ratio = $1,570,000/$812,000

= 1.93

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,403,000/$812,000

= 1.73

(3) working capital = $1,570,000 - $812,000

= $758,000

May 15 Paid $29,500 cash to settle an account payable.

Current Assets: $1,570,000 - $29,500 = $1,540,500

Current Liabilities: $812,000 - $29,500 = $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,540,500 - 167,000 = $1,373,500

(1) current ratio = $1,540,500/$782,500

= 1.97:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,373,500/$782,500

= 1.76:1

(3) working capital = $1,540,500 - $782,500

= $758,000

May 17 Wrote off a $5,000 bad debt against the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

Current Assets: $1,540,500 - $5,000 = $1,535,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,535,500 - 167,000 = $1,368,500

(1) current ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= 1.96:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= $1.96:1

(3) working capital = $1,535,500 - $782,500

=$753,000

May 22 Declared a $1 per share cash dividend on its 69,000 shares of outstanding common stock.

Current Assets: $1,535,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,535,500 - 167,000 = $1,368,500

(1) current ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= 1.96:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= $1.96:1

(3) working capital = $1,535,500 - $782,500

=$753,000

May 26 Paid the dividend declared on May 22.

Current Assets: $1,535,500 -$69,000 = $1,466,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,466,500 - 167,000 = $1,299,500

(1) current ratio = $1,466,500/$782,500

= 1.87:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,299,500/$782,500

= 1.66:1

(3) working capital = $1,466,500 - $782,500

= $684,000

May 27 Borrowed $120,000 cash by giving the bank a 30-day, 10% note.

Current Assets: $1,466,500 + $120,000 = $1,586,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500 + $120,000 = $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,586,500 - 167,000 = $1,419,500

(1) current ratio = $1,586,500/$902,500

= 1.76

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,419,500/$902,500

= 1.57

(3) working capital = $1,586,500 - $902,500

= $684,000

May 28 Borrowed $135,000 cash by signing a long-term secured note.

Current Assets: $1,586,500 + $135,000= $1,721,500

Current Liabilities: $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,721,500 - 167,000 = $1,554,500

(1) current ratio = $1,721,500/$902,500

= 1.91:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,554,500/$902,500

= 1.72

(3) working capital = $1,721,500 - $902,500

= $819,000

May 29 Used the $255,000 cash proceeds from the notes to buy new machinery.

Current Assets: $1,721,500 - $255,000 = $1,466,500

Current Liabilities: $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,466,500 - 167,000 = $1,299,500

(1) current ratio = $1,466,500/$902,500

= 1.62:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,299,500/$902,500

= 1.44:1

(3) working capital = $1,466,500 - $902,500

= $564,000

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

May 1, Current Assets = $1,400,000

Ratio of current assets to current liabilities = 1.90:1

Acid -test ratio = 1.70:1

Therefore, current liabilities = $1,400,000/1.9 = $737,000

Current Assets minus Inventory/$737,000 = 1.7

Therefore, current assets minus inventory = $737,000 * 1.7 = 1,253,000

Inventory = Current Assets - (Current assets -inventory)

= $1,400,000 - $1,253,000

= $147,000

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers