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cricket20 [7]
2 years ago
6

A disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is A. The free cash flow method is not used widely in practice. B. The ter

minal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases. C. The free cash flow method is not rigorous. D. The projection of free cash flows depends on earnings estimates.
Business
1 answer:
SSSSS [86.1K]2 years ago
7 0

The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.

In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.

  • So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.

Hence, the Option B is correct.

Read more about this here

<em>brainly.com/question/22593826</em>

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Which item shows a credit balance in the Trial Balance?
Gre4nikov [31]

Answer:

Asset and expense accounts appear on the debit side of the trial balance whereas liabilities, capital and income accounts appear on the credit side.

6 0
3 years ago
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How frequently is the value of insurers variable sub accounts normally calculated
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

Everyday because the ever-increasing complexity of our securities laws has led to a great deal of confusion among investors over the differences between mutual funds and variable annuity sub-accounts.

Explanation:

That's the answer.

8 0
2 years ago
​Tom's Taxidermy has a monthly target operating income of $29,000. Variable expenses are 65​% of sales and monthly fixed expense
HACTEHA [7]

Answer:

Leverage factor will be 1.344

Explanation:

We have given operating income = $29000

And variable expenses is 65 5 of the sales

And fixed expenses = $10000

So contribution margin = $29000+$10000 = $39000

We have to find the leverage factor

Leverage factor is given by

Leverage factor =\frac{contribution\ margin}{operating\ income }=\frac{39000}{29000}=1.344

So leverage factor will be 1.344

5 0
3 years ago
Lambert Manufacturing has $120,000 to invest in either Project A or Project B. The following data are available on these project
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

c. $74,450

Explanation:

The computation of the Net present value is shown below  

= Present value of all yearly cash inflows after applying discount factor + salvage value - initial investment  

where,  

The Initial investment is $120,000

All yearly cash flows would be

= Annual net operating cash inflows × PVIFA for 6 years at 14%  

= $50,000 × 3.8887

= $194,435

Refer to the PVIFA table

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $194,435 - $120,000

= $74,435 approx

6 0
3 years ago
Rupert and cordelia own an american company that does business in foreign nations. getting a license in a new country can be cha
Lyrx [107]

Answer:

The payment made by Cordelia

Explanation:

In the scenario it stated clearly that Rupert filled out what would have been a normal application form for operational license in the country

However Cordelia using connections was able to schedule a meeting with the government official that <u>has the authority to determine which foreign companies get licenses, and pays him $200 to approve their license.</u>

Cordelia payment is nothing short of bribery and corruption because it is not a legally required payment and the motive was clearly to unduly influence the minister to approve their license.

Such payment will likely violate the foreign corrupt practices act

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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