Estimate the amount of the tip by rounding the bill to the nearest dollar before calculating.

Mathematics

1 answer:

fredd [130]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Tip Total: $ 11

Total (Bill + Tip): $ 62

Step-by-step explanation:

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A jar contains a mixture of 12 black marbles, 10 red marbles, and 18 white marbles, all the same size. If two marbles are drawn

ivann1987 [24]

The probability will be :

C(12,2) / C(40,2) = 11/130, which is around 8.46%

5 0

3 years ago

Which statement about the angle measures is true?

sattari [20]

Answer:

Option (4)

Step-by-step explanation:

By the property of exterior angle of a triangle,

"Exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of two opposite interior angles."

In the triangle ABC,

∠ACD is an exterior angle and ∠BAC and ∠ABC are the opposite interior angles.

m∠ACD = m∠BAC + m∠ABC

95° = m∠BAC + m∠ABC

Therefore, Option (4) will be the correct option.

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3 years ago

The veloctiy of sound in air is given by the equation v=20 times the square root of 273+t where v is the velocity in meters per

Nikitich [7]

So we just need to plug in our values and solve
$v = 20 \sqrt{273 + t}$
we are given v is 369 so we have
$369 = 20 \sqrt{273 + x}$
now we solve for x.
divide both sides by 20
square both sides
subtract 273 from both sides
$369 = 20 \sqrt{273 + x} \\ 18.45 = \sqrt{273 + x} \\ 340.40 = 273 + x \\ x = 67.4$
so a temp of about 67 degrees C

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3 years ago

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he probability that the San Jose Sharks will win any given game is 0.3694 based on a 13-year win history of 382 wins out of 1034

garri49 [273]

Answer:

0.0071 = 0.71% probability that the San Jose Sharks win 9 games in the upcoming month.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the Sharks win, or they do not. The probability of the Sharks winning a game is independent of any other game. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$