Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
Answer:
450 simple
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
think its acute
Step-by-step explanation:
yes im just bored sorry
Answer:
i think its b
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A=132
Step-by-step explanation:
A=ah+bh+ch+1
2﹣a4+2(ab)2+2(ac)2﹣b4+2(bc)2﹣c4=3·10+4·10+5·10+1
2·﹣34+2·(3·4)2+2·(3·5)2﹣44+2·(4·5)2﹣54=132
