Answer:
True
Explanation:
Machine is the key component while processing the raw material into finished goods.
This is related to the goods as machine hours are directly related with the number of units.
Accordingly, there is a belief of management that the overheads are directly related to machine hours.
And thus, they are allocated based on machine hours under traditional costing. As therefore, the statement is true as states all of the above things.
Answer:
14.77%
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
= 4.97% + 1.40 × 7%
= 4.97% + 9.8%
= 14.77%
The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also called market risk premium and the same is shown in the answer
Answer:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $23.973 per machine-hour.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Estimated total machine-hours= 15,000
The estimated variable manufacturing overhead was $7.36 per machine-hour.
The estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead was $249,200.
To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (249,200/15,000) + 7.36
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $23.973 per machine-hour.
Answer:
The computations are shown below:
Explanation:
a. The computation of the economic order quantity is shown below:
= 229 units
The carrying cost is come from
= $2.40 × 20%
b. Time between placement of orders is
= Economic order quantity ÷Annual demand
= 229 ÷ 280
= 0.8179 years
So,
= 0.8179 × 365 days
= 298.53 days
We assume 365 days in a year
c. The average annual cost of ordering cost and carrying cost equals to
= Holding cost + ordering cost
= (Economic order quantity ÷ 2 × Holding cost) + (Annual demand ÷ Economic order quantity × ordering cost)
= (229 units ÷ 2 × $0.48) + (280 ÷ 229 units × $45)
= $54.96 + $55.02
= $109.98
d)
Now the reorder level is
= Demand × lead time + safety stock
where, Demand equal to
= Expected demand ÷ total number of weeks in a year
= 280 pounds ÷ 52 weeks
= 5.38461
So, the reorder point would be
= 5.38461 × 3 + $0
= 16.15 pounds
Answer and Explanation:
The following theories of profit best explain the profits of pharma companies:
1. Risk bearing - The theory says the higher the risk, the higher the rewards. The pharma companies take huge risks in inventing a new drug, having trials and the getting FDA approvals.
2. Monopoly - If a new drug is approved, the pharma company gets a patent over it, which means that it will have an effective monopoly on that segment of the market.
3. Innovation - it states that innovation is what keeps a company ahead. And pharma industry is built on innovation. Pharma companies have to continuously find new drugs because once patents run out on existing drugs, there are no profits to be made.
