1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
IRINA_888 [86]
4 years ago
11

After World War II, Germany was divided into four occupation zones with a zone each for Great Britain, the Soviet Union, the Uni

ted States, and __________. France Poland Italy Canada
History
2 answers:
Lady_Fox [76]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:    France

Explanation:  According to an agreement reached in London, in September 1944, after World War II, Nazi Germany was to be divided into four occupation zones. Practically, Germany was divided by four Allied Powers that defeated the Nazis, and thus Germany was divided into zones belonging to the United States of America, the United Kingdom, France, and the Soviet Union.

Anestetic [448]4 years ago
6 0
After World War II, Germany was divided into four occupation zones with a zone each for Great Britain, the Soviet Union, the United States and France. The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is the first option. I hope that this answer has come to your help.
You might be interested in
How did the west african slave traders obtain the slaves they sold to european?
VMariaS [17]
<span>the slave traders captured them in war</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
New ecosystems have been created by human land use,
ira [324]

Answer:

I believe it would be true.

Explanation:

We have driven animals out of their regular habitats by using the land, thus creating more interactions with each other.

8 0
3 years ago
Jovan...i love you...​
ElenaW [278]

Answer:

GET YO CRUSTY MUSTY DUSTY SELF OFF THIS APP THIS IS A SCHOOL APP NOT A FAWKING DATING APP! y'all need holy water or something

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How is American literature of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries different from the literature written in Britain?
viva [34]
Hey mate!
You stuck?

The seventeenth and eighteenth centuries were both turbulent and polite; it was an age of virtuosos and pretenders; of [ libertinism and enlightenment, of reason and romanticism. It witnessed the rise of the novel, the birth of the modern encyclopedia, the cult of sensibility and the crafting of some of the sharpest satire in English.

It has uniquely American themes.
Besides the literature clearly reflected national characteristics of Americans - their practical, utilitarian morality and native cheerful humor, very different from the sarcastic, surly humor Englishmen
4 0
3 years ago
When was the declaration of independence sign?<br>​
Mice21 [21]

Answer:

July 4 1776

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Why did the Articles of Confederation have to be replaced by the Constitution?
    13·1 answer
  • Why did people begin to settle in one place
    12·1 answer
  • Who are the spanish armada?
    10·1 answer
  • Virgil wrote the history of rome. true or false user: slavery was
    8·1 answer
  • Who is the women in white
    5·1 answer
  • How are the number of House seats calculated?
    6·1 answer
  • Which enlightenment idea ensures no one leader has to much authority?
    14·1 answer
  • What are some "simpler pleasures" that people found during the early 1930s and our society's dependence on material goods, wealt
    8·1 answer
  • Which of the following was a pro, or positive, aspect of the Continental Army?
    10·1 answer
  • Quiz
    14·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!