Answer:
Total PV= $46,728.79
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow:
Cf1= $8,000
Cf4= $16,000
Cf8= $20,000
Cf10= $25,000
Discount rate= 6%
To calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula on each cash flow:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
Cf1= 8,000/(1.06^1)= 7,547.17
Cf4= 16,000/(1.06^4)= 12,673.50
Cf8= 20,000/(1.06^8)= 12,548.25
Cf10= 25,000/(1.06^10)= 13,959.87
Total PV= $46,728.79
Answer:
<u>Current Ratio = 2; Yes</u>
Explanation:
First, to solve for current ratio, simply divide the current assets by the current liabilities.
So the current ratio would be $30,000 / $15,000 resulting to <em><u>2</u></em>
Now, a current ratio greater than one means that <u>Mister Ribs will be able to pay its current liabilities as they come due in the next year.</u>
However, because the current ratio at any one time is just a snapshot, it is usually not a complete representation of a company’s liquidity or solvency.
Answer:
(b) After-closing balance in the Retained Earnings account on December 31, Year 1,
Total Stockholder's equity = Total assets - Total liabilities
= $220,000 - $66,000
= $154,000
After-closing balance of Retained Earnings = Total Stockholder's equity - Common stock
= $154,000 - $110,000
= $44,000
(a) Before-closing balance in the Retained Earnings account on December 31, Year 1.
Net Income = Revenue - Expenses
= $40,000 - $23,000
= $17,000
Before-closing balance of Retained Earnings:
= After-closing balance of Retained Earnings + Dividend paid - Net Income
= $44,000 + $3,200 - $17,000
= $30,200
(c) Before-closing balances in the following accounts:
Revenue = $40,000
Expenses = $23,000
Dividend = $3,200
(d) After-closing balances in the following accounts:
Revenue = $0
Expenses = $0
Dividend = $0
Because revenue and expenses are transferred to income statement and dividend are transferred to retained earnings.
Based on the information given for Server Company, the machine will be valued a<u>t $42,000 </u>and the machinery account will be credited.
<h3>What would be the value of the machine?</h3>
The machine was sold on January 1, 20X9 and at that point, the accumulated depreciation was $28,000.
The value of the machine was therefore:
= Cost of machine - Accumulated depreciation
= 70,000 - 28,000
= $42,000
Find out more on accumulated depreciation at brainly.com/question/1287985.
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