Answer:
O y > 4
Step-by-step explanation:
The dotted line indicates the line is not part of the inequality, and it is clearly greater than 4.
Answer:
Ordinary annuity
Step-by-step explanation:
Given : ABC Insurance offers an annuity with 4.5% APR for the next 5 years. You decide to invest $1000 each year into this account.
To find : What type of annuity is this?
Solution :
Annuity is the form of insurance in which some of the money is paid each year to secure for future.
There are two types of annuity:
Ordinary annuity - In this annuity the payment is made at the end of each period over a fixed length of time. Also in this annuity payments are made monthly, quarterly, semi-annually or annually.
Annuity due - is the opposite of ordinary annuity as in this the payment is made at the beginning of each period.
In the given situation the annuity is ordinary annuity because the investment is done each year for 5 years.
Given:
The function is:
![f(x)=6x-3](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=f%28x%29%3D6x-3)
To find:
The inverse of the given function, then draw the graphs of function and its inverse.
Solution:
We have,
![f(x)=6x-3](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=f%28x%29%3D6x-3)
Step 1: Substitute
.
![y=6x-3](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=y%3D6x-3)
Step 2: Interchange x and y.
![x=6y-3](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%3D6y-3)
Step 3: Isolate variable y.
![x+3=6y](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%2B3%3D6y)
![\dfrac{x+3}{6}=y](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdfrac%7Bx%2B3%7D%7B6%7D%3Dy)
Step 4: Substitute
.
![\dfrac{x+3}{6}=g(x)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdfrac%7Bx%2B3%7D%7B6%7D%3Dg%28x%29)
Therefore, the inverse of the given function is
and the graphs of these functions are shown below.
For this case we have the following function:
y = 9 (3) ^ x
Applying the following transformations we have:
Horizontal translations
Suppose that h> 0
To graph y = f (x-h), move the graph of h units to the right.
y = 9 (3) ^ (x-2)
Vertical translations
Suppose that k> 0
To graph y = f (x) -k, move the graph of k units down.
y = 9 (3) ^ (x-2) - 6
Answer:
2 units to the right
6 units down
Answer:No
Step-by-step explanation:200 is 1 tenth of 2000 because 200 can go into 2000 10 times exactly. If you want to think about it this way 200 times 10 equals 2000