The working conditions of the growing Russian industrial class in St. Petersburg and Moscow "<span>c. Were terrible and left the workers receptive to revolutionary propaganda," since there were no laws that protected workers' rights or safety at this time. </span>
The unforseen attack on Pearl Harbor...(which led to WWII)
A) The South didn't need to conquer the North to win its independence.
The South was just planning on defending itself till the North grew tired, but the North had to conquer the South to be able to reunite the Union and win the war.
I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
The answer would be opium (a drug) to trade for tea because the British didn’t want to pay silver for it and had lead to the opium wars which China had lost.
