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MariettaO [177]
3 years ago
5

Explain why the following statement are equivalent 4(x+y)=4x+4y

Mathematics
2 answers:
LekaFEV [45]3 years ago
7 0
It is equivalent because of the distributive property. If you multiply 4 by x and y, you get 4x and 4y.

4x + 4y = 4x + 4y
Allushta [10]3 years ago
6 0
They are equivalent because they are showing the Distributive Property....The Distributive Property shows that you can Distribute one number into another one, and still get the same answer.....So, you would have to do 4x+4y!!! I hope this helps!!!
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Apply distributive law

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We can still take common

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3 years ago
Find the missing side lengths. Leave your answers as radicals in simplest form. Please help!! Due today
Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

m = 10\sqrt 3

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Step-by-step explanation:

Required

Find m and n

Considering the given angle, we have:

\sin(60) = \frac{Opposite}{Hypotenuse}

This gives:

\sin(60) = \frac{m}{20}

Make m ths subject

m = 20 * \sin(60)

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m = 20 *\frac{\sqrt 3}{2}

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Considering the given angle again, we have:

\cos(60) = \frac{Adjacent}{Hypotenuse}

This gives:

\cos(60) = \frac{n}{20}

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So, we have:

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5 0
2 years ago
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serg [7]

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Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

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6*27 = 1/27 a *27

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6 0
3 years ago
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