Answer:
A
Explanation:
While dealing with a DOG situation, it is best to disinvest in the product and focus on other products with greater market potential
Complete Question:
One of the long-run effects of higher government budget deficits:
A. is growth in the economy's private sector at the same time the government sector shrinks.
B. a redistribution of real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) away from government-provided goods and toward more privately provided goods. C. a fall in the equilibrium price level.
D. an increase in the government's share of the nation's economic activity.
Answer:
D. an increase in the government's share of the nation's economic activity.
Explanation:
One of the long-run effects of higher government budget deficits is an increase in the government's share of the nation's economic activity because it would be mainly responsible for funding of the economy, thereby causing higher real Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
A government budget deficit arises when government expenses exceed it's revenue.
It usually expresses the financial health of a nation over a period of time.
Answer:
$33,900 (none of the options given in the question are correct).
Explanation:
George's adjusted gross income (AGI) will include his personal earnings from his salary, the interest that he has earned from savings, and the dividends that he got from mutual funds, but it will not include his contribution to his individual retirement account, because individual retirement accounts are not included in AGI.
Therefore, George's AGI is equal to:
$34,000 + $800 + $600 - $1,500 = $33.900
Answer:
I strongly believe that the requirement is to calculate the price of the bond.
The bond is worth $ 70,824,063.03
Explanation:
It is noteworthy that a rational would-be investor would pay for a bond a price that reflects the cash flows receivable from the bonds in future discounted to today's terms.
The future cash flows comprise of the semi-annual coupon interest of $4 million(10%/2 *$80 million) for 20 periods as well as the repayment of the principal $80 million at the end of period 20
Since coupon is paid every six months, the coupon would be twenty times over the life of the bond(paid twice a year for 10 years)
To bring the cash inflows today's term, we multiply them them by the discounting factor 1/(1+r)^N , where is the yield to maturity of 12% and N is the relevant the cash flow is received.
The discounting is done in attached spreadsheet leading $ 70,824,063.03 present value today.
Answer:
The options for this question are the following:
a. vestibule training
b. management development programs
c. performance appraisals
d. orientation programs
The correct answer is c. performance appraisals
.
Explanation:
Performance appraisal is a structural and systematic procedure to measure, evaluate and influence attributes (eg cooperation in teamwork and loyalty), behaviors (eg level of assistance and treatment given to clients) and work-related results (eg quantity and quality of the fruits of work), in order to discover to what extent the employee is productive and whether he will be able to improve his future performance. The performance evaluation process plays a monitoring role in order to:
- To provide management with information to make decisions regarding the future development of the employee, by identifying and preparing, through training and improvement programs, the most suitable candidates so that they can assume a greater number of responsibilities.
- Establish the relative value of a subject's contribution to the company and evaluate individual achievements.
- Provide general data on the expected performance of employees.
- Structure the dialogue between superior and subordinate, forcing superiors to improve knowledge of the subordinate's job.
- Be the basis to distribute the remuneration, rewards, bonuses and determine the levels \ salary increases.
