The justification was that the superior financing of the KKR bid would require less gutting of the company to pay off debts
<h3>What is
debts?</h3>
Debt is an obligation that requires one party, the debtor, to pay another party, the creditor, money or other agreed-upon value. Debt is a delayed payment or series of payments that differs from an immediate purchase.
Student loans, mortgages, and business loans are examples of "good" debt, which is defined as money owed for things that can help build wealth or increase income over time. "Bad" debt is defined as credit card or other consumer debt that does little to improve your financial situation. These are exaggerations.
In accounting, debt is classified as a liability. Debt can refer to a variety of different numbers on the balance sheet, ranging from wages payable to tax payable.
To know more about debts follow the link:
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The concept by which pay is distributed based on work produced rather than hours worked was called piece work. <span>Piece </span>work<span>, or output </span>work<span> as it is sometimes </span>called<span>, is </span>the concept<span> that workers are </span>paid<span> for </span>work produced rather than<span> the number of </span>hours worked<span>. Hope this answers the question. Have a nice day.</span>
Answer:
a) a downward shift in the AFC curve
Explanation:
AFC = Average Fixed Cost, AVC = Average Variable Cost, MC = Marginal Cost
Average Fixed Cost is defined as the fixed cost of production divided by the quantity produced. Mathematically given as:
Average Fixed Cost = Fixed Cost ÷ Quantity
AVC = FC ÷ Q
Average Variable Cost is defined as the variable cost of production divided by the quantity produced. Mathematically given as:
AFC = VC ÷ Q
Marginal Cost is defined as the cost incurred for an additional unit to be produced. Mathematically given as:
MC = ΔC ÷ ΔQ
The firm discovered a more efficient technology implies that the cost of production is reduced. The result of this is that the fixed cost (FC) is reduced and consequently, the AFC is reduced as well. Hence, the AFC curve shifts downward. We therefore see that a reduction in fixed costs (due to the discovery of a more efficient technology) results in the AFC curve shifting downwards
<u>Hence, Option A (a downward shift in the AFC curve) is the correct answer </u>
Answer:
$96,154.20
Explanation:
We are to find the future value of the annuity
The formula for calculating future value = A (B / r)
B = [(1 + r)^n] - 1
A = Amount
R = interest rate
N = number of years
[(1.08)^9 - 1 ] / 0.08 = 12.487558
12.487558 x $7,700 = $96,154.20
