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Over [174]
3 years ago
14

Date: May 10

Business
1 answer:
GuDViN [60]3 years ago
7 0

(1) c. Offers a negative-sounding apology

(2) c. Fails to offer a clear explanation

Explanation:

At the closing part of the letter, a negative sounding apology can demoralize the employees.

Hubert should have offered a well-informed explanation without sounding negative.

The letter can be re-written as follows:

Date: May 10

To: All Employees

From: Anne Leller Manager, Classic Car Restoration Inc.

Subject: Three Shelby Mustangs

You all have to work overtime next week because we must have the three 1965 Shelby Mustangs ready for Bruce Willis, one of our best clients.

We need to make sure to use all original engine parts and add a top-of-the-line clear coat on all three cars.

Additionally, the client purchased the original radios for each car, so we should install those too.

I apologize for any inconvenience, unfortunately, I am unwilling to make exceptions to this request at this point of time. However, you will surely receive an additional bonus for working overtime along with your salary.

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Suppose Specific Automakers is considering signing a long-term contract with the union representing its workers. Specific Automa
natka813 [3]

Answer: Worsen; benefits

Explanation:

Specific Automakers is signing a long term contract with the union who are the representative of workers.

Real wages should increase by = 2%

Expected inflation = 5%

Nominal wage increase = 7%

Actual inflation = 6%

Actual inflation is greater than expected inflation, so this would worsen the union and it is beneficial for the automakers because now real wage increase is only:

= Nominal wage - Actual inflation rate

= 7% - 6%

= 1%

This is an example of re-distributive cost of inflation.

8 0
3 years ago
A copy machine cost $ 45 comma 000 when new and has accumulated depreciation of $ 44 comma 000. Suppose Print and Photo Center s
natita [175]

Answer:

The disposal resulted was at D. No gain or loss

Explanation:

The gain or loss on disposal on a fixed asset is calculated by comparing the sales proceeds from disposing off the asset and the carrying value of the asset.

The carrying value of the asset is its net book value which is calculated as follows,

Carrying value = Cost - Accumulated depreciation

If the carrying value is equal to the sales proceeds from disposal, there is no gain or loss.

The carrying value of copy machine was = 45000  -  44000  =  $1000

The sales proceeds were also $1000

Thus, gain/loss on disposal = 1000 - 1000 = $0

Thus, there was no gain or loss on disposal.

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On April 1, Garcia Publishing Company received $32,580 from Otisco, Inc. for 36-month subscriptions to several different magazin
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer: Debit Unearned Fees, $8,145; Credit Fees Earned, $8,145.

Explanation:

The $32,580 are for 36 months so the amount per month would need to be calculated.

= 32,580/36

= $905

The subscriptions were paid on the 1st of April which means that only 9 months (April to December) of the first year will have revenue recognized for them.

= 905 * 9

= $8,145

Correct entry would be to debit the Unearned fees account as it is a liability that needs to reduce to reflect that fees have now been recognized.

Credit the Fees Earned account to recognize revenue.

Debit Unearned Fees, $8,145; Credit Fees Earned, $8,145.

4 0
3 years ago
When making scrap or rework decisions, management should consider: (Check all that apply.)a. Revenue from selling defective unit
vlabodo [156]

Answer:

The correct answer is all of the above

Explanation:

Scrap or the rework costs are the costs which is incurred in order to repair the   items that are defective. And the decision to rework or scrap an item or product, ground on the benefits or advantage of the incremental costs.

If the reworked units generate or yield greater advantage or benefit rather than the selling them as scrap, then the decision to rework will be considered.

And if the decision of rework is taken, then the management should consider the incremental costs, revenue or profit from selling the defective units as scarp and the lost profit on selling and making the new units while the rework is performed.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If a firm has a $1,500,000 debt limit before AT kd will change and if taxes are 40% and total equity in the capital structure is
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

$2,500,000

Explanation:

Break Point = Level of debt / Weight of debt

(100%-40%)

=60%

Hence:

= 1,500,000 / 60%

= $2,500,000

Therefore the debt breakpoint in the MCC schedule will be $2,500,000

6 0
3 years ago
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