Answer:
kailangan meron ka companies
Explanation:
advance mag isip wag dto
Answer:
$8,400
Explanation:
total commission = $300,000 x 8% = $24,000
50% co-brokerage split = $24,000 x 50% = $12,000
Walt's commission = $12,000 x 70% = $8,400
the 70% commission split between Walt and his broker means that Walt keeps 70% of the commission and the broker keeps 30%.
total commission is split between the two firms because the Walt's listing was sold by another firm.
Adverse selection describes situations when high-risk persons are more likely to receive insurance or when one bargaining side has important knowledge that the other does not. Our goal is to influence decision-makers, both inside and outside of government, to consider the future and adopt long-term plans.
When vendors and/or purchasers have different knowledge about a certain component of a product's quality, this is referred to as adverse selection. Thus, those who work in hazardous environments or lead high-risk lives are more likely to buy life or disability insurance, knowing that they will likely be able to use it.
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Answer: Higher; Comparative advantage
Explanation:
A country or a firm has a comparative advantage in producing a commodity if the opportunity cost of producing that commodity in terms of other commodities is lower than the other country or firm.
Opportunity cost is the benefit that is foregone for an individual by choosing one alternative over other alternatives available to him.
If the opportunity cost is lower for an individual then this will benefit him whereas if the opportunity cost is higher then this will not benefit the individuals.
Therefore,
United states's Opportunity cost of producing a pair of shoes = 
= 5 apples have to be foregone for producing a pair of shoes
Canada's Opportunity cost of producing a pair of shoes = 
= 2 apples have to be foregone for producing a pair of shoes
Hence, Canada has a comparative advantage in producing pairs of shoes because Canada's opportunity cost of producing a pair of shoes is lower than United states opportunity cost.
Answer:
Machine B has a higher NPV therefore should be produced
Explanation:
The machine with the higher Net Present Value (NPV) should be produced .
NPV of Machine A
PV of cash flow
PV of annual profit = A × (1- (1+r)^*(-n)/r
A- 92,000, n- 11, r- 12%
PV = 92,000 × (1- (1.12^(-11)/0.12 = 546268.32
PV of salvage value = 13,000× 1.12^(-11)= 3737.189
NPV = 546268.320 + 3737.189 -250,000 = $300,005.50
NPV of Machine B
A- 103,00, n- 19, r- 12%
PV = 103,000 × (1- (1.12^(-19)/0.12= 758675.0165
Pv of salvage value = 26000× 1.12^(-19)= 3018.776199
NPV =758675.0165 + 3018.77 -460,000 = $301,693.79
Machine B has a higher NPV , therefore should be produced.
