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serious [3.7K]
3 years ago
6

Your firm offers a 10-year, zero coupon bond (i.e., coupon rate is 0%). The yield to maturity is 8.8 percent. What is the curren

t market price of a $1,000 face value bond?
Business
1 answer:
Kamila [148]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question is $430.241

Explanation:

Zero coupon bond which are also know as pure discount bond, are those bonds which are issued at discount and makes no periodic interest payments to the bearer.

Given information -

Face value at maturity - $1000

Yield to maturity - 8.8%

Number of years till maturity - $10

Current market price - maturity value / (1+ i) ^n

where i = yield to maturity, n = Number of years till maturity

= $1000 / (1+8.8%)^10

= $1000 / (1.088)^10

= $1000 / 2.32428

= $ 430.2407

= $430.241 ( approximately )

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The ________ states that the opportunity cost of producing a good always rises as one produces more of it. group of answer choic
quester [9]

The <u>law of increasing relative cost </u>states that the opportunity cost of producing a good always rises as one produces more of it.

According to the law of increasing costs, production eventually loses efficiency as it grows. The labor expenses for each additional item will increase, for instance, if increased production requires overtime work from your workforce.

Opportunity cost is the value of other commodities or services you must forgo in order to get your desired item. The term "cost" as used by economists often refers to opportunity cost. Cost is frequently mentioned in conversations or on the news.

According to the law of increasing opportunity cost, the cost of manufacturing the next unit rises as you keep up with the production of a given good.

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6 0
1 year ago
Hyde's Headphones sells deluxe headphones for $90 each. Unit variable expenses total $70. The breakeven sales in units is 1000 a
crimeas [40]

Answer:

0.7835 or 78.35%

Explanation:

Budgeted Sales = $90 per unit x 4620 units = $415,800

Break-Even Sales (Revenue) = 1000 units x $90 per unit = $90,000 units

Margin of safety = (Budgeted Sales - Break-Even Sales) ÷ Budgeted Sales

Margin of Safety = ($415,800 - $90,000) ÷ $415,800 = 0.7835 or 78.35%

3 0
3 years ago
Bernice’s has $823,000 in sales. The profit margin is 4.2 percent and the firm has 7,500 shares of stock outstanding. The market
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

a. 3.58

Explanation:

the price earning ratio is obtain with the following formula:

\frac{Market \: Price}{EPS}

We are given with the market price, now we need to solve for the EPS

with sales and profit margin we solve for net income. then we divide by the shares outstanding to get the EPS

823,000 sales x 4.2 profit margin = 34.566‬ net income

now we solve for EPS Earning per share:

\frac{Income}{Shares}\\\frac{34,566}{7,500} = 4.6088‬

Now we can sovle for price-earnings ratio

\frac{Market \: Price}{EPS}

16.50/4.61 = 3,5791 = 3.58

8 0
2 years ago
g a machine with a cost of $148,000 and accumulated depreciation of $103,000 is sold for $59,000 cash. the amount that should be
krek1111 [17]

In a condition wherein a machine costing $148,000 and accumulates depreciation of $103,000 is sold for $59,000 cash, then the amount that should be reported as a source of cash under the cash flows from investing activities will be $59,000. Therefore, the option C holds true.

Cash flows from investing activities include the amount(s) spent by an organization over investing in different classes of assets with a view to pursue monetary returns. They include the amounts that are received or sent as cash at the time of purchase or sales of an asset of an organization.

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Complete question

g a machine with a cost of $148,000 and accumulated depreciation of $103,000 is sold for $59,000 cash. the amount that should be reported as a source of cash under cash flows from investing activities is:

a. Zero.

b. This is a financing activity.

c. $59,000.

d. $14,000.

e. This is an operating activity.

f. $45,000.

5 0
11 months ago
hen entry barriers into a market are low, firms will tend to earn zero economic profit in the long run because a. profit-seeking
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

The correct answer is B

Explanation:

Economic profit is the difference among the revenue received from the sale of the output and the cost of all inputs used and opportunity cost.

Zero economic profit, it is the situation where the firm is earning the same if its resources were employed in the next alternative which is best.

When the entry barriers in the market are low, then the firm will have the tendency of having a zero economic profit in the period of long run, as the profit which is short run will attract the extra suppliers which will result in down in the market price of the product.

3 0
3 years ago
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