Because <span>its a system of </span>democratic governance<span> of a </span>state<span> where the </span>executive branch<span> derives its democratic legitimacy from the </span>legislature<span> (</span>parliament<span>) and is also held accountable to that legislature. In a parliamentary system, the </span>head of state<span> is normally a different person from the </span>head of government<span>. This is in contrast to a </span>presidential system<span> in a democracy, where the head of state often is also the head of government, and most importantly, the executive branch does not derive its democratic legitimacy from the legislature.
</span>
I have no clue who that is sorry
The events that are most likely to be considered a normative age-graded influence on development are marriage and retirement
<h3>What is a normative age-graded influence on development?</h3>
This refers to the various things that cause changes in the lifestyle of a person and can be biological or environmental.
Hence, we can see that when a person gets married, he undergoes a normative age-graded change as his lifestyle and habits change, the same thing happens when someone retires.
Read more about normative age-graded influence here:
brainly.com/question/20738533
#SPJ11
Answer:
repression
Explanation:
Repression: In psychology, the term repression was introduced by Sigmund Freud in the psychoanalytic theory and is defined as a phenomenon that includes a psychological attempt by an individual to direct his or her impulses and desires towards particular pleasurable instincts via exclusion by the person from his or her consciousness and therefore subduing or holding it in the unconscious mind.
In other words, it excludes an individual's distressing feelings, memories, and thoughts from his or her conscious mind.
In the question above, the given statement represents repression.
Because both wanted power over North America and also they wanted land.