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3 years ago

5

What is the completely factored form of 4x+20

1 answer:

allsm [11]3 years ago

3 0

Hi there!

Since both 4x and 20 can be divisible by 4 and is greatest able to be divisible by 4, we can divide the 4 and put it outside of the parenthesis in order to factor:

4x / 4 = x
20 / 4 = 5

4 (x + 5)
would be your answer.

Hope this helps!

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0.002 is 1/10 (fraction) of......

Tpy6a [65]

<span>0.002 is the 1/10 of what number.
Find the number that applies to this.
=> 0.002 has a thousandths value since it is placed next to the decimal points
=> To be able to get the answer. Let’s convert 1/10 into a decimal.
=> 1 / 10 = 0.1
Now that we have the same decimal numbers, we can now start dividing 0.1 to 0.002
=> 0.002 / 0.1
=> 0.02
Thus, 0.002 is the 1/10 of 0.02 number.</span><span>

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

In circle P, EG and FH are diameters.<br> What is m EH?

zvonat [6]

Answer:

$m(\widehat{EH})$ = 130°

Step-by-step explanation:

Angles subtended at the center by the arcs $(\widehat{HG})$ and $(\widehat{EF})$ are ∠HPG and ∠EPF.

Since these angles are the vertical angles both will be equal.

m∠HPG ≅ m∠EPF

3x - 10 = 2x + 10

3x - 2x = 10 + 10

x = 20

Therefore, $m(\widehat{HG})=(3\times 20) - 10$

= 50°

Similarly $m(\widehat{EF})$ = 50°

In the same way angles subtended at the center will be equal.

m∠EPH ≅ m∠FPG

and $m(\widehat{EH})=m(\widehat{FG})$

Since $m(\widehat{EH})+m(\widehat{FG})+m(\widehat{EF})+m(\widehat{HG})=360$ °

$m(\widehat{EH})+m(\widehat{EH})+50+50=360$

$2m(\widehat{EH})=360-100$

$m(\widehat{EH})=130$

Therefore, measure of arc EH = 130°

3 0

3 years ago

Cards. A deck of 52 cards is shuffled and dealt. Find the probabilities of the following events: a) the tenth card is a queen; b

Veronika [31]

Answer:

0.0374
0.0010

Step-by-step explanation:

number of cards = 52

number of queen = 4

number of spades = 13

A) probability that the tenth card is a queen

drawn time (r) = 1

position of success(x) = 10th

p = 4/52

P( x,r,p) = $x-1Cr-1*p^(r) * q^(x-r)$

p(10,1,4/52) = 9C0(4/52)^1 * (48/52)^9 = 0.0374

B) probability the twentieth card is a spade

x = 20

r = 1

p = 13 / 52

P(20,1,26/52) = 19C0(26/52)^1 * (26/52)^19 = 0.0010

c) The last five cards been spades

p(last five cards been spades )

p(48..52, 5, 13/52 ) = 47...52C4(13/52)^5 * (39/52)^48..52 - 5

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3 years ago

Not understanding what to do need gelp

Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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Is (2, -4) a solution to the inequality 2x - 3y < 15? Yes or No

miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

No.

Step-by-step explanation:

We substitute the values x = 2 and y = -4 into the inequality.

Left side = 2(2) - 3(-4) = 4 + 12

= 16

Now the right side is 15 so we get 16 < 15 which is incorrect.

So (2, -4) is not a solution.

7 0

2 years ago