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VashaNatasha [74]
3 years ago
5

PLEASE HELP!!! I USED THE REST OF MY POINTS PLEASE

Business
1 answer:
Verizon [17]3 years ago
4 0

I think the answer would be either A or D

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Carrying Amount $120,000 Selling Price $80,000 Costs of Disposal $5,000 Expected Future Cash Flows $90,000 Present Value of expe
frez [133]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

Under IAS 36, an asset is said to be impaired where the carrying amount is more than the recoverable amount.

The recoverable amount is the higher of the fair value less cost to sell or the value in use which is the present value of the expected future cashflow.

Given that;

Carrying Amount = $120,000

Selling Price = $80,000

Costs of Disposal = $5,000

Hence fair value less cost to sell = $80,000 - $5,000 = $75,000  

Expected Future Cash Flows = $90,000

Present Value of expected future cash flows = $85,000 ( this is the value in use)

Recoverable amount = $85,000 (since the value in use is higher that the fair value less cost to sell)

This is lower than the carrying amount hence the asset is impaired.

Impairment = $120,000 - $85,000

= $35,000

8 0
3 years ago
Rankine Company estimates its bad debts expense by aging its accounts receivable and applying percentages to various age groups
guapka [62]

Answer:

Net amount of accounts receivable that should be included in current assets:

= Accounts receivable - Allowance for doubtful accounts

= $256,000 - $8,000

= $248,000

The journal entry is as follows:

Bad debt expense[$8,000 - $1,000] A/c Dr. $7,000

           To Allowance for doubtful accounts               $7,000

(To record the bad debt expense)

4 0
3 years ago
Increased government spending for investments such as highways or harbors financed by increasing the public debt would most like
zavuch27 [327]

Answer:

Complement private investment

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
The Bethlehem Inn is an all-equity firm with 9,000 shares outstanding at a value per share of $26.80. The firm is issuing $39,93
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

Value of equity = 9,000 x $26.80 =  $241,200

Value of debt issued = $39.932

Value of equity after debt repayment = $241,200 - $39,932

                                                                          =  $201,268                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

No of equity outstanding after debt repayment = <u>$201,268</u>

                                                                                    $26.80

                                                                               =  7,510 shares

Explanation:

In this regard, there is need to determine the value of equity after debt repayment, which is value of equity minus value of debt repaid. Then,we  will divide the value of equity after debt repayment by the value of equity per share. This gives the number of shares outstanding after debt repayment.

3 0
3 years ago
What should I make handmade for a Christmas gift
Llana [10]

Answer:

it really depends on the person what is that person into like maybe draw one of theree favroite things paint them something thats all i can think of for homemade

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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