1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
vlada-n [284]
3 years ago
9

Given k║p.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Semenov [28]3 years ago
5 0
From the given information, given k║p the incorrect statement would be statement D. The reason being, m∠1 and m∠2 are not alternate exterior angles, they are linear pairs, the rest of the statement is correct. Thus the correct answer is:
D
You might be interested in
HELP ASAP WILL MARK AS BRAINLIST IF CORRECT
OverLord2011 [107]

The image did not load

4 0
3 years ago
8-2b=-2(b=-3;b=0;b=5)
lions [1.4K]
Ekgful4y98pyr89495yt82h9
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELP ME :) I DID THIS PROBLEM 7 TIMES AND ITS STILL WRONG PLEASE
fiasKO [112]

Answer: $95450

Step-by-step explanation:

We obviously want to look in the 3rd column.

Income that can be taxed is within interval for 33%, so (0.33)(315000) = $103950.

Subtract the tax credit, and we get $103950 - $8500 = $95450.

7 0
2 years ago
Explain how the Quotient of Powers was used to simplify this expression. = 22 By finding the quotient of the bases to be , and c
9966 [12]

the correct question in the attached figure

(2^5)/8=2^2

we have

8----------- >2^3

(2^5)/8----------- >  (2^5)/(2^3)=2^(5-3)=2^2

therefore 

2^2=2^2-- ------> is ok

 the answer is by simplifying 8 to 2^3 to make both powers base two and subtracting the exponents

5 0
3 years ago
Determine whether the improper integral converges or diverges, and find the value of each that converges.
shusha [124]

Answer:convergent

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Improper Integral I is given as

I=\int_{-\infty}^{0}1000e^xdx

I=1000=\int_{-\infty}^{0}e^xdx

integration of e^x is e^x

I=1000\times \left [ e^x\right ]^{0}_{-\infty}

I=1000\times I=\left [ e^0-e^{-\infty}\right ]

I=1000\times \left [ e^0-\frac{1}{e^{\infty}}\right ]

I=1000\times 1=1000

so the integration converges to 1000 units  

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • One batch of walnut muffins uses 1 cups of walnuts. How many cups of
    6·1 answer
  • What is the solution to the equation 1 over 5 multiplied by n equals 3
    14·2 answers
  • If its 12:30what time will it be in 48 hours
    9·1 answer
  • 1.) A single ticket to the fair cost $6. A family pass costs $32 more
    5·1 answer
  • How do you do scatter plots
    14·1 answer
  • Maricel is programming an archery component of a new video game. In her code, she has created an "auto aim" feature that helps p
    12·1 answer
  • Zoey has 99 years .She plans to make 5 bangles .Each bangle is made using 30 beads how many more beads does zoey need?​
    10·1 answer
  • Part A: Let y represent the number of rabbits after x years. Which function can be used to model y as a function of x, where x i
    10·1 answer
  • Correct answer gets brainliest
    8·2 answers
  • What is 3/4 + 1/3? answer please
    9·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!