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Dennis_Churaev [7]
3 years ago
15

Spain controlled the land of Mexico in ___ of these maps

History
1 answer:
vodomira [7]3 years ago
8 0
Spain controlled the land of Mexico in the 1600s <span>of these maps.</span>
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When did tsar autocracy collapse​
VMariaS [17]

Answer:

1917

Explanation:

The Tsarist autocracy collapsed in 1917 due to the following reasons— (a) Miserable Condition of the Workers (i) The industrial workers in Russia got very low wages. (ii) They had very long working hours, sometimes upto 15 hours.

6 0
3 years ago
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After world war 1, why were conditions ripe for social and political change in Russia, but not in the united states
solmaris [256]
Russia’s heavy losses in WWI quickened existing calls for a political revolution against the tsar, as corruption and economic stagnation left millions of Russians in misery. By contrast, America’s economy was booming during the same period, largely due to a system of free enterprise. Political “radicalism” and especially Russian “Bolshevism,” then, were seen as unnecessary and dangerous.
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3 years ago
Southemers who owned slaves made up __
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Answer:

C. 25%

Explanation:

Before entering the civil war, confederates states tried to spread a propaganda that only 1% of Southerners own slaves. But, According to the census that conducted by the US government 1860, around 25% of southerners own slaves.

Not a lot of them were being put in plantation as workers (usually only wealthy business owners can afford this). Most of slave owners at that time own slaves as an equivalent of a housemaid. They helped with the chores, taking care of stables, cook, etc.

3 0
3 years ago
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What do we call previously independent lands and nations that are forced under the control of a stronger nation? These previousl
Masja [62]

occupied territories

Explanation:

there are many terms used to describe there territories. The colonies were controlled by Britain for the purpose of manufacturing goods and services that were not available in that current region. India was under British control as an occupational territory because England could not produce tea leaves in order to manufacture tea and India was perfect climate and soil to grow.

5 0
3 years ago
Why was the “Cold War” considered cold?
3241004551 [841]

Answer:

\boxed {\boxed {\sf D. \ No \ war \ ever \ erupted \ but \ difference \ of \ ideals \ brought \ about \ conflict }}

Explanation:

The era of the Cold War began after the Second World War, roughly in 1947 and lasted decades until about 1991. It began because of the differences between the United States and the Soviet Union, chiefly capitalism versus communism.

It wasn't really a war, it was more of a huge and prolonged standoff or stalemate. Both countries had threatening nuclear weapons, but neither utilized the, There was conflict and proxy wars (each country supported one side of a war, for example the Korean and Vietnam Wars), but never direct fighting or war declarations between the US or USSR.

So, the best answer is D. No war ever erupted but difference of ideals brought about conflict

7 0
3 years ago
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