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True [87]
3 years ago
10

Cost of goods manufactured is calculated as follows:

Business
1 answer:
Margaret [11]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is B

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

A) Direct materials used + direct labor + manufacturing overhead – ending WIP – beginning WIP.

(B) Beginning WIP + direct materials used + direct labor + manufacturing overhead – ending WIP.

(C) Direct materials used + direct labor + manufacturing overhead – beginning WIP + ending WIP.

(D) Beginning WIP + direct materials used + direct labor + manufacturing overhead + ending WIP.

Cost of goods manufactured= beginning WIP + direct materials + direct labor + allocated manufacturing overhead - Ending WIP

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Merger Co. has 10 employees, each of whom earns $1,700 per month and has been employed since January 1. FICA Social Security tax
andriy [413]

Answer:

Date            Description                                         Debit                    Credit

March, 31     Payroll Tax expense                       $‭2,320.5‬0

                    FICA Social Security taxes                                             $1,054

                    FICA Medicare taxes                                                      $ 246.50

                    FUTA taxes                                                                      $ 102

                    SUTA taxes                                                                      $ 918

<u>Working </u>

FICA Social Security taxes = 1,700 * 10 * 6.2% = $‭1,054‬

FICA Medicare taxes = 1,700 * 10 * 1.45% = $‭246.5‬0

FUTA Taxes = 1,700 * 10 * 0.6% = $‭102‬

SUTA Taxes = 1,700 * 10 * 5.4% = $‭918‬

Payroll Tax expense = 1,054 + 246.50 + 102 + 918 = $‭2,320.5‬0

7 0
3 years ago
Adirondack Marketing Inc. manufactures two products, A and B. Presently, the company uses a single plantwide factory overhead ra
Eddi Din [679]

The factory overhead allocated per unit of Product A in the Painting Department is $ .

Given,

                             Overhead       Total direct       DLH per product

                                                    Labour Hours           A          B

Painting dept.       $241000        10500                       8          11

Finishing dept.      $69700         10500                       5           6

Totals                     $311400        21000                       13         17

Single overhead rate per hour = total overheads/ total labor hours

Now, substituting the values in the formula

Single overhead rate per hour = 311400/21000

                                                   = $14.83 per labor hour

Now, direct labor hours for product A for the Painting department  = 16 hours

Overhead rate per unit of product A in the painting department = 16 hours × $14.83 per hour

Overhead rate = $237.28 per unit

Thus, Adirondak Marketing Inc. would allocate $237.28 to the painting department for 1 unit of Product A.

Learn more about factory overhead:

brainly.com/question/26082424

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8 0
2 years ago
How is the law of increasing costs similar to the concept of decision making at the margin?
amm1812
Helpppp usssss plzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzz
3 0
4 years ago
Due to more emphasis on empowerment and more talented and better-educated lower-level management, span of control in organizatio
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

Narrowed

Explanation:

Span of control is the term now used more commonly in business management, particularly human resource management. Span of control refers to the number of subordinates a supervisor has.

Span of control has narrowed as the persons are capable of fullfill the requierements on any specific task without constant supervision

8 0
3 years ago
Grove Inc. is a publicly traded chemical company that reported the following financial statements for the most recent year. $1,0
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer:

FCFF = $335.50

Explanation:

Formula of Free Cash Flow to the firm ( FCFF) :

FCFF= Net Income+ Interest(1- tax rate)+ Depreciation+ working capital changes- capital investment

Now let us note some critical points and assumptions which are necessary to solve the question.

As the question says that the company will maintain its existing after tax return on capital invested next year, hence that means that the net income for the next year remains the same, which is $140.

It is also that the company expects it's Operating Income(EBIT) to increase by 6% every year, hence it's operating income(EBIT) for the next year will be $250*(1.06)= $265

Tax rate remains the same, that is, (60/200*100)= 30%

As there is no details with respect to working capital changes and any capital investment made, hence it is assumed to zero changes and no additional investment.

It is assumed that the depreciation method being followed is straight line method, hence depreciation value next year would be the same, that is, 150

Now let's finalise our income statement:

EBIT = $265 given in the question

Interest = ( $65) backward calculation

Taxable Income = $200

Taxes (30%) = ($60)

Net income = $140 given in question.

Hence our FCFF will be :

$ 140 + $65*(1-0.30) + $150 = $335.50

8 0
3 years ago
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