Answer:
The next coupon rate that is needed to set is 5.00%
Explanation:
Solution
Recall that:
Your company presently has =$1,000 par
Coupon bonds = 6%
Maturity = 10 years
The next step is to find the coupon rate that is needed or required to set.
Now,
The number of semi annuals to maturity, NPER = (10 YEARS * 2)= 20
Semiannual coupon payments, PMT = ($1000 * 6%/2) = $30
The current selling price per bond (FV) = $1078
The maturity value at the end is = $1000
The semiannual compound type, = 0 (It is 0 if compounded at the end of each semiannual and is 1 if compounded at the start of each semiannual)
Semi annual interest rate is = 2.5%
Thus,
The number of semi annuals in a year is = 2
The annual coupon rate of bonds (new) = 2/50 % * 2
= 5.00%
It is important to note that the semi annual coupon rate is computed suing the excel function rate (nper, pmt, pv, fv, type),
Whereby
PV =1078
NPR = 20
PMT =30
FV = 1000
TYPE = 0.
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Answer:
The question is missing information, however the way to approach the required is presented below in the explanation
Explanation:
When calculating variances it's always important to flex the budgeted information to standard form so we're comparing apples with apples. If we use the actual budgeted figures we can distort the variances and comparisons of information may be useless. For instance if we produce 40 units but budgeted was 50 units we need to work out what was the budgeted cost for 40 units and compare that to the actual cost of 40 units. That is what is meant by flexing to the standard form.
A) The fixed overhead spending variance is the difference between the budgeted and actual fixed overhead expense. This is calculated as follows
Actual fixed overhead - Budgeted fixed overhead = Fixed overhead spending variance $
B) The fixed overhead volume variance is calculated as follows;
Budgeted fixed overhead rate – Fixed overhead rate applied to the units (quantity of production)
C) Variable overhead spending variance is calculated as follows;
The variable overhead spending variance is the difference between the actual and budgeted rates of expenditure of the variable overhead.
Actual hours worked x (actual overhead rate - standard overhead rate)
= Variable overhead spending variance
D) Variable overhead efficiency variance is calculated as follows;
The variable overhead efficiency variance is the difference between the actual and budgeted hours worked. The standard variable rate per hour is used for this and must be calculated.
Standard overhead rate x (Actual hours - Standard hours)
Answer:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $76.27 per machine hour
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Thomlin Company forecasts that total overhead for the current year will be $11,898,000 with 156,000 total machine hours.
<u>To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:</u>
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 11,898,000 / 156,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $76.27 per machine hour
Answer:
D : $600,000 loss
Explanation:
In the income statement, the total revenues and the total expenses are recorded.
If the total revenues are more than the total expenditure then the company earns net income
And, If the total revenues are less than the total expenditure then the company have a net loss
This net income or net loss would reflect in the statement of the retained earning account.
So,The net income or net loss would be
= Net income - research and development costs
= $2,400,000 - $3,000,000
= $600,000 loss
