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3 years ago

Giving out Brainliest! The formula for an object's final velocity is f=i−gt. Solve for t.

Mathematics

2 answers:

Citrus2011 [14]3 years ago

8 0

I'm not realy good at math

kykrilka [37]3 years ago

4 0

Remark

There are a couple of ways you can do this. The best way is probably the way that avoids dividing by a minus sign. It is a bit longer but division can sometimes cause problems.

Solution

Add gt to both sides.

f + gt = i Subtract f from both sides.

gt = i - f Divide by g

$\boxed{\text{t=}\dfrac{i - f}{g}}$

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Enter your answer and show all the steps that you use to solve this problem.

slamgirl [31]

Answer:

h = -t+20

After 8 hours the candle will be 12 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

We have 2 points (time, inches)

(3,17) and (5,15)

We can find the slope

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

= (15-17)/(5-3)

= -2/2

= -1

We can use point slope form

y-y1 = m(x-x1)

Replace y with h and x with t

h-17 = -1 (t-3)

Distribute

h-17 = -t+3

Add 17 to each side

h-17+17 = -t+3+17

h = -t+20

3 0

3 years ago

What is the value of the expression?<br><br> 5^2 - 3^0

Vlad1618 [11]

5^2 = 25
3^0 = 1 (anything that is exponented by 0 is 1)

25 - 1 = 24

24 is your answer

hope this helps

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Have a student write the answer to the essential

xxTIMURxx [149]

What is the essential?

3 0

3 years ago

PLEASE ANSWER ASAP FOR BRAINLIEST ALGEBRA I <br><br> Please graph (0,0) (2,3) (3,1) (1,2)

nevsk [136]

Answer: See photo posted below :)

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2 years ago

Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex

allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

$P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}$

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have $\frac{50}{6}$ number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers