Answer:
.
Step-by-step explanation:
We use the Venn diagram to calculate the desired probabilities.
Note that there are 6 possible results in the sample space
S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Then note that in the region representing the intercept of A and B there are two possible values.
So
In the region that represents event A there are 4 possible outcomes {4, 5, 1, 2}
So
In the region that represents event B there are 3 possible outcomes {1, 2, 6}
So
.
Now
<em><u>"Correlation Coefficient" is the value from between -1 and 1 indicates the strength of the correlation between two variables.</u></em> Galton calculated the correlation coefficient for the line of best fit, to see how strong the relationship was. Hope this helps you! Thank you for posting your question at here on Brainly. Have a great day. -Charlie
Answer:
x230x
Step-by-step explanation:
yan po ang tama na decimal pa breinlest at pa vote plsssssss thxxxxxxxx
Answer: b=6
Step-by-step explanation:
6 is in the y intercept place so it equals 6
If you change the fractions into decimals, 5/6=.83, 2/3=.67, 3/4=.75, you can see that 2/3 is the shortest