Answer:
Answer explained below
Explanation:
(1)
IS Model:
Y = C + I + G + X - M
Y = 100 + 0.5Y + 100 - 20r [G = X = M = 0]
(1 - 0.5)Y = 200 - 20r
0.5Y = 200 - 20r
Y = 400 - 40r ......(1) [IS Equation]
LM Model:
Money demand (Speculative + Transactions demand) = Money supply
100 - 10r + 0.1Y = 80
0.1Y = 10r - 20
Y = 100r - 200 .....(2) [LM Equation]
(2) When IS & LM intersect, from part (1):
400 - 40r = 100r - 200
140r = 600
r = 4.29
Y = 100r - 200 = (100 x 4.29) - 200 = 429 - 200 = 229
(3)
There will be four regions as explained below:
In region I, there is excess supply in both goods and money market, which puts downward pressure on both interest rate and output.
In region II, there is excess demand in goods market, but excess supply in money market, which puts upward pressure on output & downward pressure on interest rate.
In region III, there is excess demand in both goods and money market, which puts upward pressure on both interest rate and output.
In region IV, there is excess supply in goods market, but excess demand in money market, which puts downward pressure on output & upward pressure on interest rate.
The net cash flow is <u>A. $290.</u>
<h3>What is net cash flow?</h3>
The net cash flow is the difference between the cash inflows and the cash outflows. It can be positive or negative. When the cash inflows are greater than the cash outflows, the net cash flow is positive. The opposite is the case when the cash outflows exceed the cash inflows.
<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>
- Total Cash Inflows = $2,040
- Total Cash outflows = $1,750
- Net cash flows = $290 ($2,040 - $1,750)
Thus, the net cash flow based on the spreadsheet is <u>A. $290.</u>
Learn more about the net cash flow here: brainly.com/question/4326360
Answer:
option (C) - 6.11%
Explanation:
Data provided :
Coupon rate one year ago = 6.5% = 0.065
Semiannual coupon rate = 
= 0.0325
Face value = $1,000
Present market yield = 7.2% = 0.072
Semiannual Present market yield, r = 
= 0.036
Now,
With semiannual coupon rate bond price one year ago, C
= 0.0325 × $1,000
= $32.5
Total period in 15 years = 15 year - 1 year = 14 year
or
n = 14 × 2 = 28 semiannual periods
Therefore,
The present value = ![C\times[\frac{(1-(1+r)^{-n})}{r}]+FV(1+r)^{-n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D%29%7D%7Br%7D%5D%2BFV%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D)
= ![\$32.5\times[\frac{(1-(1+0.036)^{-28})}{0.036}]+\$1,000\times(1+0.036)^{-28}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5C%2432.5%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D%29%7D%7B0.036%7D%5D%2B%5C%241%2C000%5Ctimes%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D)
or
= $32.5 × 17.4591 + $1,000 × 0.37147
= $567.42 + $371.47
= $938.89
Hence,
The percent change in bond price = 
= 
= - 6.11%
therefore,
the correct answer is option (C) - 6.11%
Answer:
March 31
Dr. Payroll Tax Expense: 3071.25
Cr. FICA- Social security taxes payable:
1395
Cr. FICA- Medicare taxes payable:
326.25
Cr. SUTA-State unemployment taxes payable:
1215
Cr. FUTA- Federal unemployment taxes payable: 135
Explanation:
March 31
Dr. Payroll Tax Expense: 3071.25
Cr. FICA- Social security taxes payable:
(6.2%×$2,250) 1395
Cr. FICA- Medicare taxes payable:
(1.45%×$2,250) 326.25
Cr. SUTA-State unemployment taxes payable:
(5.4$×$2,250) 1215
Cr. FUTA- Federal unemployment taxes payable: (0.6%×$2,250) 135
Answer:
$678
Explanation:
Given that,
Number of shares sold = 300
Selling price of each share = $42.06
Cost of purchasing shares = $39.80 per share
Total dividend received = $1,272
We can easily determine the total capital gain on this investment by comparing the sales value and purchase value of this stock.
Total capital gain on this investment:
= Sales value - Purchase value
= (Number of units × Selling price per unit) - (Number of units × cost of purchasing per share)
= (300 × $42.06) - (300 × $39.80)
= $12,618 - $11,940
= $678
