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ElenaW [278]
3 years ago
12

In order to properly record a direct-financing lease, the lessor needs to know how to calculate the lease receivable. The lease

receivable in a direct-financing lease is best defined as1. the present value of minimum lease payments.2. the total book value of the asset less any accumulated depreciation recorded by the lessor prior to the lease agreement.3. the difference between the lease payments receivable and the fair value of the leased property.4. the amount of funds the lessor has tied up in the asset which is the subject of the direct-financing lease.
Business
1 answer:
vova2212 [387]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

3. the difference between the lease payments receivable and the fair value of the leased property.

Explanation:

The lessor should remove the book value of the asset from its balance sheets and replace it with the amount that he will receive. To do this, the lease receivable in a direct-financed lease is best defined as the differences between the receivable lease payments less the book value of the asset when it was sold.

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Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

Part (1) Calculate the under applied or over applied overhead.

Manufacturing overhead incurred is $1,029,000. Applied overhead is $884,000.

Under applied overhead = Manufacturing overhead incurred — Applied overhead

Under applied overhead = $1,029,000 - $884,000

Under applied overhead = $145,000

Note:

Applied overhead= (Applied overhead in WIP) + (Applied overhead in Finished goods) + (Applied overhead in cost good sold)  

Applied overhead = $88,400 + 0132,600 + 6663,000

Applied overhead = $884,000

Part (2) Record the journal entry for under or over applied overhead to cost of goods sold.

(To record the under applied overhead transferred to cost of goods sold)

Debit: Cost of goods sold =  $145,000  

Credit: Manufacturing overhead = $145,000

Part (3) Record the journal entry for proportional allocation of under or over applied overhead to WIP, finished goods and cost of goods sold.

Debit: Work-in-process ($145000 × $88400 ÷ $884,000) = $14500  

Debit: Finished goods ($145000 × $132600 ÷ $884000) = $21750  

Debit: Cost of goods sold ($145000 × $663,000 ÷ $884,000) = $108750  

Credit: Manufacturing overhead = $145000

(To record under or over applied overhead transferred to WIP. finished goods and cost of goods sold)    

Part (4)

The net operating profit will be increased to the extent of $36250 (14500 + 21750) if the under applied overhead is allocated to work-in-process, finished goods and cost of goods sold rather than being closed to cost of goods sold.

8 0
3 years ago
Under absorption costing, a company had the following unit costs when 8,000 units were produced. Direct labor $ 8.50 per unit Di
Dimas [21]

Answer:

$24,25

Explanation:

Cost per unit (Variable Costing) = Variable manufacturing costs

                                     = Direct Materials + Direct Labor + Variable Overheads

                                     =  $ 9.00+$ 8.50+$ 6.75

                                     = $24,25

Therefore, the total production cost per unit under variable costing if 25,000 units had been produced is $24,25

8 0
4 years ago
Jim is being paid $7.25 an hour to work at a restaurant. In the circular flow, this is an example of a:
max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

The answer is household selling a resource in the factor market which is the same thing as business buying resource in the factor market

Explanation:

Factor market is a market in which factors of production e.g land, capital, labor are bought and sold.

In the question above, Jim(household or labor) is working at a restaurant (firm or business). This means Jim is selling his resource(labor) in the factor market while the restaurant is buying the resource(labor) in the factor market.

4 0
3 years ago
study Assume that you are going to invest $120,000 in a two asset portfolio. You will invest $80,000 in the fully diversified ma
Ratling [72]

Answer:

9.33%

Explanation:

The expected return of  two asset portfolio is the weighted average of individual assets' expected to return as computed thus:

Portfolio expected return=(weight of market portfolio*expected return of market portfolio)+(weight of riskless security*expected return of riskless security)

weight of market portfolio=amount invested in market portfolio/total invested amount

weight of market portfolio=$80,000/$120,000=66.67%

expected return of market portfolio=market risk premium+riskless return

expected return of market portfolio=8%+4%=12%

weight of riskless security=1-66.67%=33.33%(since total investment which is 100% is 1)

expected return of riskless security=4%

Portfolio expected return=(66.67%*12%)+(33.33%*4%)

Portfolio expected return=\=9.33%

5 0
3 years ago
Quality Builders, a home builder in the United States, makes use of many suppliers to provide quality products in the homes it b
frozen [14]

Answer:

A. outsourcing

Explanation:

  • The outsourcing is an agreement in which a company hires another company that is responsible for a planned set of activities that are done internally and involves the transferring of the employees and assets form perform to another, and thus helps the contractors to build their quality homes.
8 0
3 years ago
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