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Volgvan
3 years ago
5

Sadie owns a hair salon. She gives her hairdressers two options for using her​ facility, equipment, and salon​ products: Option​

1: they can pay Sadie​ $5 per haircut plus​ 20% of their revenue Option​ 2: they can pay a flat chair rental of​ $1,000 per month The hairdressers charge their customers ​$40 per haircut. The hairdressers incur no other expenses. At what point​ (number of haircuts per​ month) will the hairdressers be indifferent between the two payment​ options? (A) 25 (B) 77 (C) 193 (D) 125 (E) 111
Business
1 answer:
Sonja [21]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is B.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Option​ 1: they can pay Sadie​ $5 per haircut plus​ 20% of their revenue.

Option​ 2: they can pay a flat chair rental of​ $1,000 per month.

The hairdressers charge their customers ​$40 per haircut.

Option1= 5*cut + 8*cut= $13 per cut

Option 2= $1000

1000= 13x

77=x

77 haircuts.

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7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
The multiplier for a futures contract on a stock market index is $50. The maturity of the contract is 1 year, the current level
jolli1 [7]

Answer:

The cash flow mark to market proceeds = $754.45

Explanation:

The current index value after 12 months = current stock index * (1 + risk free - dividend yield)^12

= 1800 * (1 + 0.50% - 0.20%)^12

The current index value after 12 months = 1865.88

The future index value after 12 months = future stock index * (1 + risk free - dividend yield)^12

= 1820 * (1 + 0.50% - 0.20%)^11

The future index value after 12 months= 1880.97

The cash flow mark to market proceeds = (future index future value - current index future value) * multiplier

= (1880.97 - 1865.88) * 50

The cash flow mark to market proceeds = $754.45

5 0
3 years ago
In​ 2008, as a financial crisis began to unfold in the United​ States, the FDIC raised the limit on insured losses to bank depos
Tomtit [17]

The FDIC stands for Federal Deposit Insurance Company.

By raising the limit on insured losses the FDIC helps stabilize the system by instilling confidence.

If the consumer knows that their savings accounts are protected up to $250,000 they will be encouraged to spend money during a time of crisis.

Because of the increased limit, there is less probability that there would be something called

"a run on the bank."

8 0
3 years ago
A company wants to have $20,000 at the end of a ten-year period by investing a single sum now. How much needs to be invested in
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

8448.22

Explanation:

We are asked to calculate the present value of 20,000 in ten years.

\frac{amount}{ {(1  + rate)}^{time} }  = present \: value

\frac{20000}{ {(1  + 0.12)}^{10} }  = 8448.22

<em>Resuming: </em>in this kind of problems we are asked for which lump sum becomes a certain amount in a given period of time at an annual rate

3 0
3 years ago
What is the typical relationship between time and interest rate?
melamori03 [73]
<span>Time and interest rates are directly related to one another. When paying a loan that accures interest, the longer it takes for you to pay the loan back, the more interest you are going to pay on that loan. Over time, the interest adds up and can be a large sum of money, if you want to pay a lower amount of interest, it is often beneficial to pay off the loan in a quicker amount of time. </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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