Answer:
The yield to call is 5.07%
Explanation:
The yield to call can be computed using the rate formula in excel,which is given as :=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)
nper is the number of years to call which is 6 years
pmt is the annual interest coupon payable by the bond,which is :6.75%*$1000=$67.5
The pv is the current price at which the bond is offered to investors. i.e $1,135.25
fv is the price at the bond would be called in six years i.e par value+premium
par value is $1000
premium is $67.5
call price is $1067.5
=rate(6,67.5,-1135.25,1067.5)
rate=5.07%
Answer: c. $1,650 unfavorable
Explanation:
The direct labor rate variance shows the difference between the cost of direct labor that the company thought it would incur vs what it actually incurs for the period.
Formula is:
Direct labor rate variance = Actual cost of direct labor - Standard cost of actual hours of direct labor
= Actual hours * (Actual cost - Standard cost)
= 5,500 * (24 - 23.70)
= $1,650 unfavorable
Unfavorable because the actual cost incurred was more than the cost anticipated.
Answer: $9,000
Explanation:
Rule 144 is a regulation that governs the trading of restricted, unregistered, and control securities and is enforceable by the SEC.
Under the rule, the person, as an officer of the ABC Corporation is limited to selling the higher of 1% of the Outstanding stock the company has or the average weekly trading volume over the preceding 4 weeks.
1% of the outstanding 900,000 shares is;
= 1% * 900,000
= 9,000 shares
This is higher than the average weekly trading volume over the preceding 4 weeks so this is the maximum permitted sales figure.
Answer:
5,850 units
Explanation:
Units Incomplete at the beginning of the month:
= No. of units × 40% incomplete
= 600 units × 0.4
= 240 units
Units completed during the month:
= 6,000 - 600
= 5,400 units are completed
Units completed at the end of June:
= 700 units × 30%
= 210 units
Number of equivalent units of production for conversion cost for the period:
= 240 + 5,400 + 210
= 5,850 units
Answer:
a. Suppose GP issues $ 100$100 million of new stock to buy back the debt. What is the expected return of the stock after this transaction?
b. Suppose instead GP issues $ 50.00$50.00 million of new debt to repurchase stock. i. If the risk of the debt does not change, what is the expected return of the stock after this transaction?
ii. If the risk of the debt increases, would the expected return of the stock be higher or lower than when debt is issued to repurchase stock in part (i)?
- If the risk of the debt increases, then the cost of the debt will increase. Therefore, the company will need to spend more money paying the interests related to the new debt which would decrease the ROE compared to the 18% of (i). Since we do not know the new cost of the debt, we cannot know exactly by how much it will affect the ROE, but I assume it will still be higher than the previous ROE.
Explanation:
common stock $200 million
total debt $100 million
required rate of return 15%
cost of debt 6%
current profits = ($200 million x 15%) + ($100 x 6%) = $30 million + $6 million = $36 million
if equity increases to $300 million, ROI = 36/300 = 12
if instead new debt is issued at 6%:
equity 150 million, debt 150 million
cost of debt = 150 million x 6% = $9 million
remaining profits = $36 - $9 = $27 million
ROI = 27/150 = 18%
