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Gala2k [10]
3 years ago
9

"what was the chief reason for colonial discontent just prior to the first shots?"

History
2 answers:
lisov135 [29]3 years ago
5 0
The chief reason for colonial discontent just prior to the First shots was the stationing of British troops in cities. By the mid-1770s, though, the relationship between the American colonies and their British rulers had become so tense, so poisoned, so regarded as by disbelief and resentment that the once seemingly indestructible bonds of empire were on the verge of dissolution. And in the spring of 1775, the first shots were fired in a war that would sooner or later win America its independence.
frutty [35]3 years ago
4 0

The chief reason for colonial discontent just prior to the First shots was the stationing of British troops in cities.  

Further Explanation:  

British troops:  

In October 1768, British troops touched base in the city of Boston and involved the city. Pressures prompted the Boston Massacre on March 5, 1770, and the Boston Tea Party on December 16, 1773. In light of the Tea Party and different challenges, Parliament authorized the Intolerable Acts to rebuff the states.  

British Army during the American Revolution:  

At the episode of the Revolutionary War in 1775, the absolute size of the British armed force, barring civilian army, comprised of 48,647 fighters (Fey 9). Of these troopers around 39,294 were infantry, 6,869 were rangers and 2,484 were mounted guns.  

British troops positioned in the states:  

In 1765 Parliament passed the Quartering Act that said the pioneers expected to discover or pay for hotel for British troopers positioned in America. With the French and Indian War over, numerous settlers saw no requirement for troopers to be positioned in the provinces. England likewise required cash to pay for its war obligations.

Subject: history

Level: High School

Keywords: British troops, British Army during the American Revolution, British troops positioned in the states.  

Related links:  

Learn more about evolution on

brainly.com/question/1280356

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La respuesta correcta para esta pregunta abierta es la siguiente.

A pesar de que no se anexan opciones o incisos para responder, podemos comentar lo siguiente.

Las diferencias generales entre la literatura prehispánica y la literatura de la conquista son las siguientes.

Primero que nada, el idioma. La literatura prehispánica está escrita en alguno de los diferentes lenguajes o dialectos que se hablaban en las antiguas civilizaciones Mesoamericanas o Sudamericanas, como los Toltecas, Olmecas, Zapotecas, Mayas, Aztecas o Incas. La literatura de la conquista está escrita en el idioma Castellano, que se hablaba en España.

Otra diferencia era el formato.  La literatura prehispánica está escrita en códices. Importantes códices donde a través de representaciones gráficas se expresaban ideas y eventos.

Al no contar con un sistema de escritura tal y como lo conocemos el día de hoy, la literatura prehispánica hizo uso de estos códigos o de la tradición oral.

En cambio, la literatura de la conquista estaba escrita en el formato narrativo y descriptivo, y se usaba el papel.

Por último, podemos referirnos al tema.  La literatura prehispánica se refería a los aspectos de ritos, cultura, tradiciones, rituales y ceremonias, representados por pictogramas. La literatura de la conquista habla de los eventos históricos y situaciones que sucedieron durante la conquista, colonización de las trbus y su evangelización en la religión Católica.

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