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4 years ago

Can someone please help

Mathematics

1 answer:

mr_godi [17]4 years ago

6 0

The discount is 10%

$10\% = 0.10$

$4 \times 0.10 = 0.40$

$4 - 0.40 = 3.60$

~~

I hope that helps you out!!

Any more questions, please feel free to ask me and I will gladly help you out!!

~Zoey

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3 years ago

\int\limits^0_∞ cos{x} \, dx

JulijaS [17]

Answer:

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General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Calculus

Unit Circle
Trig Graphs

Calculus

Limits
Limit Rule [Variable Direct Substitution]: $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to c} x = c$
Integrals
Integration Rule [Fundamental Theorem of Calculus 1]: $\displaystyle \int\limits^b_a {f(x)} \, dx = F(b) - F(a)$
Trig Integration
Improper Integrals

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

Identify

$\displaystyle \int\limits^0_\infty {cos(x)} \, dx$

Step 2: Integrate

[Improper Integral] Rewrite: $\displaystyle \lim_{a \to \infty} \int\limits^0_a {cos(x)} \, dx$
[Integral] Trig Integration: $\displaystyle \lim_{a \to \infty} sin(x) \bigg| \limits^0_a$
[Integral] Evaluate [Integration Rule - FTC 1]: $\displaystyle \lim_{a \to \infty} sin(0) - sin(a)$
Evaluate trig: $\displaystyle \lim_{a \to \infty} -sin(a)$
Evaluate limit [Limit Rule - Variable Direct Substitution]: $\displaystyle -sin(\infty)$

Since we are dealing with infinity of functions, we can do a numerous amount of things:

Since -sin(x) is a shift from the parent graph sin(x), we can say that -sin(∞) = sin(∞) since sin(x) is an oscillating graph. The values of -sin(x) already have values in sin(x).
Since sin(x) is an oscillating graph, we can also say that the integral actually equates to undefined, since it will never reach 1 certain value.

∴ $\displaystyle \int\limits^0_\infty {cos(x)} \, dx = sin(\infty) \ or \ \text{unde}\text{fined}$

Topic: AP Calculus AB/BC (Calculus I/I + II)

Unit: Improper Integrals

Book: College Calculus 10e

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